INDIAN HISTOEY MCQs

1. Which of the following is regar-ded as the real founder of portugese power in India ?

(A) Pedro Cabral

(B) Almeida

(C) Vasco da Gama

(D) Alfonso de Albuquerque

2. Of the various Europeans who came to India, Whose missio-nary activities were more impor-tant than commerce ?

(A) Dutch

(B) Portuguese

(C) Danes

(D) English

3. The battle of ‘Swali Hole’ was fought between which of the following countries ?

I. Portugal

II. Nettherland

III. France

IV. Britain

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(C) I and IV

(D) III and IV

4. Who was the founder of the French East India Company ?

(A) Colbert

(B) De La Haye

(C) Duplex

(D) Dumas

5. The Danes sold all their settle-ments in India to—

(A) The portugese

(B) The Dutch

(C) The English

(D) The French

6. ‘Calicoes’ stood for Indian—

(A) Indigo

(B) Textiles

(C) Cotton

(D) Spices

7. The portuguese established a number of factories in India. Which of the following was not one of them ?

(A) Bombay

(B) Masulipatam

(C) Bassein

(D) Salsette

8. On which occassion did the Port-uguese handed over Bombay to English ?

(A) Marriage of Charles II with the portugese princess Catherine of Braganza

(B) By the treaty of Ax la chap-elle

(C) As a result of Portugal’s independence from the con-trol of Spain

(D) The defeat of Spanish Armada by the British (U.P.P.C.S. 2001, I.A.S. 98)

9. Match the following—

(a) Pondicherry

(b) Goa

(c) Tranquebar

(d) Nagapattinam

1. French

2. Portuguese

3. Donish

4. Dutch

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 2

(B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 3 2 1 4

(D) 1 2 3 4

10. The term ‘Interpolers’ was used by the—

(A) Danish

(B) French

(C) English

(D) Dutch

11. From whom was Goa acquired by Albu querque ?

(A) Bijapur

(B) Golcunda

(C) Berar

(D) Bidar

12. Arrange the following in proper chronological order—

I. Formation of Dutch East India Company

II. Formation of French East India Company

III. Formation of the Swedish East India Company

IV. Formation of the English East India Company

(A) I, II, IV, III

(B) IV, I, II, III

(C) II, I, IV, III

(D) III, II, I, IV

13. The Dutch who discovered commercial possibilities in India and whose book caused sensa-tion in the western world is—

(A) Jan Pietyoovan Coen

(B) Huyghen van Linschoten

(C) William Barents

(D) Houtman

14. Where did the English open their first factory in the South in 1611 ?

(A) Madras

(B) Trichonapally

(C) Masulipatam

(D) Pulicat

15. Who said about the English company in Bengal that it is “A company of base, quarelling people and foul dealers ?”

(A) Mir Jumla

(B) Shaista Khan

(C) Murshi Quli Khan

(D) Aliwardi Khan

16. The nickname of English East India Company was—

(A) Bob Company

(B) Sam Company

(C) Tom Company

(D) John Company

17. Which of the following state-ment is false with regard to the Dutch interest and activities in India ?

I. They treated the local inhabi- tants cruelly and exploited them

II. They did not get involved in the politics

III. They became the carrier of trade between India and the Islands of the Far East

IV. Many attempts were made by them to monopolise the channels of trade between India and the west.

(A) I, II, III

(B) II, III, IV

(C) I, III, IV

(D) I, II, IV

18. Which of the following state-ment is false ?

(A) The lease of Madras in 1639 was obtained by the English from the ruler of Chandr-agiri

(B) Colbert founded the French East India Company

(C) The ‘Blue Water Policy’ associated with Albuquer-que

(D) The Portuguese power was not organised on commer-cial lines

19. Who founded Calcutta in 1690 ?

(A) Almeida

(B) Albuquerque

(C) Job Charnock

(D) Lins Choten

20. The Dutch fort called Geldria was to eated at—

(A) Golcunda

(B) Goa

(C) Pune

(D) Pulicat

21. What was the reason of Mughal wrath towards the English com-pany—

(A) Unreasonable demands of the Mughal official

(B) The French pirates

(C) Interlopers

(D) Arrongant attitude of the company’s officials

22. Tick the greatest failure of Aurangzeb in contributing the rise of the European powers in India ?

I. He failed to understand the political and military implic- ations of the fortified facto-ries

II. He could not stop the exercise of administrative authority by the Europeans in their settlements

III. He permitted the Dutch and English to use their military power against portuguese

IV. He thought that the Euro-pean companies were only commercial in nature

(A) I, II

(B) II, III, IV

(C) I, III, IV

(D) I, IV

23. Which European power called the port of Chittagong as the ‘Porto grande’ or the grand port was—

(A) French

(B) Portuguese

(C) English

(D) Danes

24. The English Governor who was expelled by Aurangzeb was—

(A) De la Haye

(B) Sir John Child

(C) Dumas

(D) Aungier

25. Name of state which granted the ‘Golden Farman’ to the Dutch to trade freely on payment of only 500 ‘Pagodas’ per annum as duty was—

(A) Gingee

(B) Ikkeri

(C) Chandragiri

(D) Golcunda

Answers :

1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (D)

INDIAN HISTOEY MCQs

1. Bombay emerged as a leading port on the western coast on acc-ount of its—
(A) Immunity from Maratha invasions
(B) Natural harbour
(C) Improved administration
(D) All of the above

2. Name the state which granted the ‘Golden Farman’ to Holland to trade freely on payment of 500 ‘PAGODAS’ a year as duty was—
(A) Golcunda
(B) Bijapur
(C) Berar
(D) Ahmadnagar

3. Which of the following was not the Dutch factory on the Coromondel coast—
(A) Porto Novo
(B) Sadraspatam
(C) Ngalwanche
(D) Masulipatam

4. Which Portuguese Governor decisively defeated the Bijapur forces which advanced againt Goa ?
(A) Albuquerque
(B) Almeida
(C) Cabral
(D) Joa de Castro

5. Name the son of the great Protuguese Governor, who supp-lemented the letters of his father—
(A) Bras de Albuquerque
(B) Bras de Almeida
(C) Bras de Cabral
(D) Bras de Lapo soares

6. Which Mughal emperor conqu-ered Golcunda to mark the decline of the Dutch Coromandel Government—
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Aurangzeb
(D) Farrukhsiyar

7. The Dutch Christened the fact-ory at Pulicat as St. Geldria, in honour of—
(A) Van Berchem, the director general of the Coromandel factories
(B) Daniel Havart, the author of the account of Dutch factories on the Coromondel coast
(C) Van Reede, the in charge of the Coromandel Governm-ent
(D) Van Coen, the Governor General of Batavia

8. The immediate aim of the English East India Company est-ablished in 1600 was—
(A) To exploit the Indian coasts
(B) The acquisition of the spices and pepper of the Eastern archipelago
(C) To trade in Muslin and textiles
(D) None of them

9. Name of Governor of Bombay who is regarded as the true founder of Bombay’s greatness ?
(A) Ropt
(B) Sir John Child
(C) Gerald Aungier
(D) Job Charnock

10. The Bengal presidency was constituted in 1700; who became its first President—
(A) Job Charnock
(B) Sir charles Eyre
(C) Captain William Heath
(D) Major Hector Munroe

11. Who among the following Englishmen tried to obtain from Akbar a ‘Firman’ for trade in Gujarat—
(A) Ralph Fitch
(B) John Middenhall
(C) Sir Thomas Roe
(D) Thomas Stephens (R.C.S. 2000)

12. Which one of the following Mughal emperors gave per-mission to East India Company to build a factory at Surat—
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Farrukhsiyar
(D) Bahadur Shah II

13. Who among the following issued the founding Charter of the English East India Company—
(A) Henry VIII
(B) Elizabeth I
(C) James I
(D) Charles I (I.A.S. 99)

14. The first Danish Trade pact was signed at Tranquebar in the year—
(A) 1620
(B) 1630
(C) 1660
(D) 1616

15. Match the following—
List I
(a) Hawkins
(b) Thomas Roe
(c) Manucci
(d) Ralph Fitch
List II
1. 1615
2. 1608
3. 1585
4. 1658
Code—
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 3 4 (I.A.S. 2001)

16. Which of the following statem-ents is not correct about William Hawkins—
(A) He could not speak Turkish Language
(B) He reached Agra in the Court of Jahangir with a letter written by king James I to emperor Akbar
(C) The name of his vessel was Hector
(D) He had a considerable expe-rience in the Levant (U.P.P.C.S. Sub. 2001)

17. Intially the name of British East India Company was—
(A) A British company to trade with India
(B) A company of merchants of London
(C) A company of Private merchants of London
(D) The Governor and company of merchants of London Trading into the East Indies
(U.P.P.C.S. Sub. 2001)

18. Who was the first Indian ruler to welcome Vasco da Gama ?
(A) Daulat Rao Scindia
(B) Chanda Saheb
(C) Zamorin
(D) Muzaffar Jung (R.A.S./R.T.S. 1999)

19. Name the Mughal emperor who issued firman, permitting East India company to trade with India ?
(A) Babar
(B) Humayun
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir (R.A.S./R.T.S. 1999)

20. The first English factory was estabished in India at—
(A) Surat
(B) Hughli
(C) Bombay
(D) Madras (M.P.P.S.C. 1999)

21. Among European traders the Portugese remained unsuccessful in India because—
(A) They had no sea port
(B) Their Naval power was weak
(C) Ruler of Kochin strongly resisted them
(D) Due to their religious fanatism the Indian rulers became their enemies (M.P.P.S.C. 2000)

22. The East India company secured the ‘Golden firman’ from which ruler ?
(A) Jahangir
(B) Sultan of Golcunda
(C) Ruler of Chandragiri
(D) Mughal emperor Farukh-siyar (M.P.P.S.C. 2000)

23. Who was the first representative of English company to reach the court of Jahangir ?
(A) Sir Thomas Roe
(B) Sir Henry Middleton
(C) Captain Hawkins
(D) Captain Best (M.P.P.S.C. 2000)

24. Where was the first ever fort erected by any European power in India ?
(A) Cochin
(B) Calicut
(C) Maosaulipattam
(D) Goa (M.P.P.S.C. 2000)

25. The commercial objective of the Portuguese in India was to—
(A) Capture territories on the western coast
(B) Capture trade of textiles and spices
(C) Oust Arabs and the Persians from India’s maritime trade
(D) Capture trade of pepper and other superior spices (I.A.S. 2003)

Answers :

1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (D)

Governors-General of India

Governors of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), 1774–1833

Name Entered office Left office Warren Hastings 20 October 1773 1 February 1785 Sir John Macpherson (acting) 1 February 1785 12 September 1786 The Earl Cornwallis 12 September 1786 28 October 1793 Sir John Shore 28 October 1793 March 1798 Sir Alured Clarke (acting) March 1798 18 May 1798 The Earl of Mornington 18 May 1798 30 July 1805 The Marquess Cornwallies 30 July 1805 5 October 1805 Sir George Barlow (acting) 10 October 1805 31 July 1807 The Lord Minto 31 July 1807 4 October 1813 The Earl of Moira 4 October 1813 9 January 1823 John Adam (acting) 9 January 1823 1 August 1823 The Lord Amherst   1 August 1823 13 March 1828 William Butterworth Bavley (acting) 13 March 1828 4 July 1828 Lord William Bentinc 4 July 1828 1833

Governors-General of india, 1833–1858

Name Entered office Left office Lord William Bentinck 1833 20 March 1835 Sir Charles Metcalfe, Bt (acting) 20 March 1835 4 March 1836 The Lord Auckland 4 March 1836 28 February 1842 The Lord Ellenborough 28 February 1842 June 1844 William Wilberforce Bird (acting) June 1844 23 July 1844 Sir Henry Hardinge 23 July 1844 12 January 1848 The Earl of Dalhousie 12 January 1848 28 February 1856 The Viscount Canning 28 February 1856 1 November 1858

Governors-General and Viceroys of India, 1858–1947

Name Entered office Left office The Viscount Canning 1 November 1858 21 March 1862 The Earl of Egine 21 March 1862 20 November 1863 Sir Robert Napier (acting) 21 November 1863 2 December 1863 Sir William Denison (acting) 2 December 1863 12 January 1864 Sir John Lawrence, Bt 12 January 1864 12 January 1869 The Earl of Mayo 12 January 1869 8 February 1872 Sir John Strachey (acting) 9 February 1872 23 February 1872 The Lord Napier (acting) 24 February 1872 3 May 1872 The Lord Northbrook 3 May 1872 12 April 1876 The Lord Lytton 12 April 1876 8 June 1880 The Marquess of Ripon 8 June 1880 13 December 1884 The Earl of Dufferin 13 December 1884 10 December 1888 The Marwuess of Lansdowne 10 December 1888 11 October 1894 The Eral of Elgin 11 October 1894 6 January 1899 The Lord Curzon of Kedleston 6 January 1899 18 November 1905 The Earl of Minto 18 November 1905 23 November 1910 The Lord Hardinge of Penshurst 23 November 1910 4 April 1916 The Lord Chelmsford 4 April 1916 2 April 1921 The Earl of Reading 2 April 1921 3 April 1926 The Lord Irwin 3 April 1926 18 April 1931 The Earl of Willingdon 18 April 1931 18 April 1936 The Marquess of Linlithgow 18 April 1936 1 October 1943 The Viscount Wavell 1 October 1943 21 February 1947 The Viscount Mountbatten of Burma 21 February 1947 15 August 1947

Governors-General of India, 1947–1950

Name	Entered office	Left office
The Viscount Mountbatten of Burma	15 August 1947	21 June 1948
C. Rajgopalachari	21 June 1948	26 January 1950

INDIAN HISTOEY MCQs

1. The statue of Gomateshwara at Sravanabelagola was built by—
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Kharvela
(C) Amoghavarsha
(D) Chamundaraya
Ans : (D)
2. ‘Live well, as long as you live. Live well even by borrowings, for once cremated, there is no return’. The rejection of after life is an aphorism of the—
(A) Kapalika sect
(B) Sunyavada of Nagarjun
(C) Ajivikas
(D) Charvakas
Ans : (D)
3. Which one of the following usages was a post-vedic development ?
(A) Dharma-Artha-Kama-Moksha
(B) Brahmana-Kshatriya-Vaishya-Shudra
(C) Brahmacharya-Grihasthashrama-Vanaprastha-Sanyasa
(D) Indra-Surya-Rudra-Marut
Ans : (C)
4. The capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Patiala
(C) Lahore
(D) Kapurthala
Ans : (C)
5. In the Gandhara sculptures the preaching mudra associated with the Buddha’s First Sermon at Sarnath is—
(A) Abhaya
(B) Dhyana
(C) Dharmachakra
(D) Bhumisparsa
Ans : (C)
6. The name of the poet Kalidas is mentioned in the—
(A) Allahabad pillar inscription
(B) Aihole inscription
(C) Alapadu grant
(D) Hanumakonda inscription
Ans : (B)
7. Zero was invented by—
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Varahamihira
(C) Bhaskara I
(D) An unknown Indian
Ans : (D)
8. Which one of the following important trade centres of ancient India was on the trade route connecting Kalyana with Vengi ?
(A) Tagara
(B) Sripura
(C) Tripuri
(D) Tamralipti
Ans : (A)
9. The first Indian ruler who joined the subsidiary Alliance was—
(A) The Nawab of Oudh
(B) The Nizam of Hyderabad
(C) Peshwa Baji Rao II
(D) The king of Travancore
Ans : (B)
10. Vidhushaka, a common character in Sanskrit drama is invariably a—
(A) Brahmana
(B) Kshatriya
(C) Vaishya
(D) Shudra
Ans : (A)
11. Toramana belonged to the ethnic horde of the—
(A) Scythians
(B) Hunas
(C) Yue-chis
(D) Sakas
Ans : (B)
12. Who among the following is said to have witnessed the reigns of eight Delhi Sultans ?
(A) Ziauddin Barani
(B) Shams-i-siraj Afif
(C) Minhaj-us-siraj
(D) Amir Khusrau
Ans : (D)
13. The first Indian ruler to organize Haj pilgrimage at the expense of the state was—
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Feroz Tughlaq
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (C)
14. Who among the following ladies wrote a historical account during the Mughal period ?
(A) Gulbadan Begum
(B) Noorjahan Begum
(C) Jahanara Begum
(D) Zebun-nissah Begum
Ans : (A)
15. The first to start a joint stock company to trade with India were the—
(A) Portuguese
(B) Dutch
(C) French
(D) Danish
Ans : (B)
16. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are—
(A) Buddhist
(B) Buddhist and Jain
(C) Hindu and Jain
(D)Hindu, Buddhist and Jain
Ans : (D)
17. The significance of the Bengal Regulation of 1793 lies in the fact that—
(A) It provided for the establishment of the Supreme court
(B) It restricted the application of English law to Englishmen only
(C) It accommodated the personal laws of Hindus and Muslims
(D) It provided for the appointment of the Indian Law Commission
Ans : (C)
18. The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Turkey
(C) Mongolia
(D) Persia
Ans : (C)
19. Which one of the following monuments has a dome which is said to be one of the largest in the world ?
(A) Tomb of Sher Shah, Sasaram
(B) Jama Masjid, Delhi
(C) Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-din Tuglaq, Delhi
(D) Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur
Ans : (D)
20. Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers—
(A) In the Gupta administration
(B) In the Chola administration
(C) In the Vijaynagar administration
(D) In the Maratha administration
Ans : (D)
21. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by—
(A) Mahayana Buddhism
(B) Hinayana Buddhism
(C) Jainism
(D) The Lokayata School
Ans : (C)
22. Which one of the following territories was not affected by the revolt of 1857 ?
(A) Jhansi
(B) Jagdishpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Chittor
Ans : (D)
23. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Battle of Baxur Mir Jafar Vs Clive
(B) Battle of Wandiwash—French Vs East India Company
(C) Battle of Chelianwala—Dalhousie Vs Marathas
(D) Battle of Kharda—Nizam Vs East India Company
Ans : (B)
24. The word ‘Hindu’ as reference to the people of Hind (India) was first used by—
(A) The Greeks
(B) The Romans
(C) The Chinese
(D) The Arabs
Ans : (A)
25. Hughly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal by—
(A) The Portuguese
(B) The French
(C) The Danish
(D) The British
Ans : (A)

INDIAN HISTOEY MCQs

1. The term ‘nishka’ which meant an ornament in the Vedic period was used in later times to denote a/an—
(A) Weapon
(B) Agricultural implement
(C) Script
(D) Coin
Ans : (D)
2. Which one of the following pairs of kings of ancient and medieval periods of Indian history and the works authored by them is correctly matched ?
(A) Krishnadevaraya : Samaranganasutradhra
(B) Mehendravarman : Mattavilasaprahasana
(C) Bhojadeva : Manasollasa
(D) Somesvara : Amuktamalyada
Ans : (B)
3. The founder of Boy Scouts and Girl Guides movement was—
(A) Charles Andrews
(B) Robert Montgomery
(C) Richard Temple
(D) Baden Powell
Ans : (D)
4. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Dharamsastra : Works on religion and philosophy
(B) Chaturvarnya : Four Ashrams
(C) Shudra : Service to three varnas
(D) Mahamatra : Superior Officials
Ans : (B)
5. Chanakya was known as—
(A) Bhattasvamin
(B) Rajasekhara
(C) Vishnugupta
(D) Visakhadatta
Ans : (C)
6. A lot of details regarding the village administration under the Cholas is provided by the inscriptions at—
(A) Thanjavur
(B) Uraiyur
(C) Kanchipuram
(D) Uttaramerur
Ans : (D)
7. In Jainism ‘perfect knowledge’ is referred to as—
(A) Jina
(B) Ratna
(C) Kaivalya
(D) Nirvanas
Ans : (C)
8. Who among the following is NOT associated with medicine in ancient
india ?
(A) Dhanvantri
(B) Bhaskaracharya
(C) Charaka
(D) Susruta
Ans : (B)
9. In Mughal paintings one notices the adoption of the principles of foreshortening whereby near and distant people and things could be placed in perspective. This was due to the influence of the—
(A) British
(B) Dutch
(C) Portuguese
(D) Danish
Ans : (C)
10. Ashokan inscriptions were first deciphered by—
(A) Buhler
(B) Robert Sewell
(C) James Prinsep
(D) Codrington
Ans : (C)
11. Among the four works mentioned below which one is encyclopaedic in nature ?
(A) Amarakosa
(B) Siddhantasiromani
(C) Brhat Samhita
(D) Ashtangahrdaya
Ans : (A)
12. Consider the following passage—
In the course of a career on the road spanning almost thirty years, he crossed the breadth of the Eastern hemisphere, visited territories equivalent to about 44 modern countries and put behind him a total distance of approximately 73000 miles.
The world’s greatest traveller of pre-modern times to whom the above passage refers is—
(A) Megasthenes
(B) Fa Hien
(C) Marco Polo
(D) Ibn Battuta
Ans : (C)
13. The first political organisation established in India in 1838 was known as—
(A) British India Society
(B) Bengal British India Society
(C) Settlers Association
(D) Zamindary Association
Ans : (D)
14. The foundation of modern education system in India was laid by—
(A) The Charter Act of 1813
(B) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835
(C) The Hunter Commission of 1882
(D) Wood’s Despatch of 1854
Ans : (B)
15. Uplift of the backward classes was the main programme of the—
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Satya Shodhak Samaj
(C) Arya Samaj
(D) Ramakrishna Mission
Ans : (B)
16. The Ryotwari settlement was introduced by the British in the—
(A) Bengal Presidency
(B) Madras Presidency
(C) Bombay Presidency
(D) Madras and Bombay Presidencies
Ans : (D)
17. The Buddhist Sect Mahayana formally came into existence during the reign of—
(A) Ajatashatru
(B) Ashoka
(C) Dharmapala
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (D)
18. The last in succession of Jaina Tirthankaras was—
(A) Parsvanatha
(B) Rishabha
(C) Mahavira
(D) Manisubrata
Ans : (C)
19. The earliest rock cut caves in western India are those at—
(A) Nasik, Ellora and Ajanta
(B) Junnar, Kalyan and Pitalkhora
(C) Ajanta, Bhaja and Kondane
(D) Bhaja, Pitalkhora and Kondane
Ans : (A)
20. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is—
(A) Chakravarti
(B) Dharmadeva
(C) Dharmakirti
(D) Priyadarsi
Ans : (D)
21. Which one of the following is a monument constructed by Sher Shah ?
(A) Kila-i-Kuhna mosque at Delhi
(B) Atala Masjid at Jaunpur
(C) Barasona Masjid at Gaur
(D) Quiwwat-al-Islam mosque at Delhi
Ans : (A)
22. Which among the following cities is considered as one of the oldest surviving cities in the world ?
(A) Mathura
(B) Varanasi
(C) Hardwar
(D) Ayodhya
Ans : (A)
23. The earliest evidence of silver in India is found in the—
(A) Harappan culture
(B) Chalcolithic cultures of Western India
(C) Vedic texts
(D) Silver punch marked coins
Ans : (A)
24. Which one of the following is a language of Baluchistan but linguistically Dravidian ?
(A) Brahui
(B) Kui
(C) Parji
(D) Pengo
Ans : (A)
25. Which one of the following is the most fundamental difference between Mahayana Buddhism and Hinayana Buddhism ?
(A) Emphasis on ahimsa
(B) Casteless society
(C) Worship of gods and goddesses
(D) Worship of stupa
Ans : (C)

GENERAL STUDIES - GENERAL SCIENCE MCQs

1. The energy released on account of the motion of a body is termed as the:A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. relative velocity
D. None of these
Answer: (B)

2. Kilowatt is the measuring unit of:A. power
B. current
C. work
D. energy
Answer: (A)


3. In which unit can we measure food energy?A. Calorie
B. Keloin
C. Joule
D. Erg
Answer: (A)


4. The conservation of energy principle refers to the fact that:A. it is essential not to waste natural gas and oil, for these are limited in supply
B. solar heating makes use of the sun’s energy, which would otherwise be wasted
C. energy can neither be created nor destroyed
D. nuclear-power plants recycle spent fuel
Answer: (C)


5. One HP is equal to ___ kg per meter per second.A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 10
Answer: (C)


6. When a constant force is applied to a body, it moves with uniform:A. Speed
B. Velocity
C. Acceleration
D. Momentum
Answer: (B)


7. ‘Parsec’ is a unit of:A. weight
B. time
C. speed
D. distance
Answer: (D)


8. Knot is unit of speed of which of the following?A. Ship
B. Aeroplane
C. Light rays
D. Sound waves
Answer: (A)


9. Assume that - A denotes narrow wheel, A wider wheel, B denotes small free wheel, B larger free wheel, C denotes small gear wheel, C larger gear wheel, - in a rural area where there are sandy tracts, it will be advisable to use a bicycle with :
A. A, B, C
B. A, B, C
C. A, B, C
D. A, B, C
Answer: (B)


10. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel is:
A. 12
B. 49
C. 9
D. 4
Answer: (C)


11. If rubber tyres replace wheels in bullock carts then:1. speed of bullock cart increases
2. load carrying capacity increases
3. the capacity of bullock to pull the cart at a stretch increases
4. None of the above
A. 1 & 3correct
B. 2 & 3correct
C. 1 & 2correct
D. 1, 2 & 3correct
Answer: (D)


12. Rolling a drum is easier than pulling it along a road beacuse:A. rolling causes less friction
B. friction is more when the object is rolled
C. pulling willl damage the drum
D. None of the above
Answer: (A)


13. Walking on ice is more difficult than walking on concrete because ice:A. gives less friction
B. gives more friction
C. is very cold and as such blood gets frozen up
D. being soft, one can get bogged down into it while walking
Answer: (A)


14. What should be done by a car driver if he is caught on the way by a severe thunder storm and lightening?A. He should leave the wheel and lie down on the ground
B. He should remain inside the car with its window glasses all pulled up
C. Park the car beneath a tall tree
D. Just bite a piece of cotton firmly in between the two rows of teeth
Answer: (A)


15. Ball bearings are used in cycles and scooters to:A. reduce the area of contact between the two surfaces in contact
B. reduce friction between wheel and axle
C. increase friction between wheel and axle
D. reduce friction between ground and vehicle
Answer: (B)


16. How do the centripetal forces pull a body?A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Inwards
D. Outwards
Answer: (C)


17. When milk is churned, the cream separates from it due to the:A. cohesive force
B. frictional force
C. centrifugal force
D. gravitational force
Answer: (C)


18. A body in circular motion requires:A. centrifugal force
B. centripetal force
C. inertial force
D. gravitational force
Answer: (B)


19. The rising of ink to the point of nib in a fountain pen is due to:A. surface tension
B. capillary action
C. gravitational attraction
D. None of the above
Answer: (B)


20. As one goes up the mountain one suffers from nose bleeding sometimes. The reason is thatA. blood pressure decreases at high altitudes
B. blood pressure increases at high altitudes
C. as one starts going up, the pressure of the blood capillaries becomes higher than the outside pressure
D. None of the above
Answer: (C)


21. Birds get thrust (forward motion) and lift (upward motion) from:A. flapping of wings
B. twisting of feathers
C. shape of wings which is similar to aeroplane blades
D. air sacs
Answer: (A)


22. Small rain-drops are spherical in shape because of:A. surface-tension
B. gravity
C. atmospheric pressure
D. evaporation
Answer: (A)


23. The cross-section of the water column in the given figure is circular. The diameter of the bigger limb is 4 cm and that of the smaller limb 2 cm. A force of 40kg is placed at the bigger end. What force will be required at the smaller end to keep the level of water balanced?
A. 20 kg
B. 80 kg
C. 160 kg
D. 10 kg
Answer: (D)


24. A body partially floats in water when:A. the volume of the displaced water is greater than the volume of the body
B. a body immersed in fluid loses as much in weight as the weight of the displaced volume of the fluid
C. the mass of the displaced water is greater than the mass of the body
D. None of the above
Answer: (B)


25. Which of the following is used in diesel engine?
1. Cylinder
2. Spark plug
3. Piston
Choose your answer from the codes given below :
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
Answer: (D)


26. Iron is heavier than water, still the ship floats on the sea becauseA. weight of the ship is less than the weight of water in the sea
B. weight of the ship is more than sea water
C. weight of the ship is less than the weight of water that the ship displaces
D. weight of ship is equal to the weight of water that ship displaces
Answer: (C)


27. The volume of an object will be maximum when it is:A. spherical
B. rectangular
C. cone shaped
D. triangular
Answer: (A)


28. The mass of the body is different from its weight because:A. mass is variable quantity whereas weight is constant
B. mass is constant but weight increases as the body moves from the poles to the Equator
C. mass varies very little at different places where as weight varies a lot
D. mass is a measure of the quantity of matter where as weight is a force
Answer: (D)


29. Which one of the following is a vector quantity?A. volume
B. mass
C. weight
D. density
Answer: (C)


30. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is:A. increased
B. neutralised
C. decreased
D. the same
Answer: (B)


31. A certain amount of cold air will weigh heavier than the same amount of dry air because of the:A. greater number of molecules at low temperature
B. lesser number of molecules at high temperature
C. greater energy of molecules at high temperature
D. lesser energy of molecules at high temperature
Answer: (A)


32. A free-floating astronaut ‘A’ pushes another free-floating astronaut ‘B’ in space. The mass of ‘A’ is greater than that of ‘B’. The force exerted by astronaut ‘A’ on astronaut ‘B’ will be:
A. equal to zero
B. equal to the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’
C. greater than the force exerted by ‘B’on ‘A’
D. les than the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’
Answer: (A)


33. On the lunar surface:A. weight remains same but mass varies
B. mass ramains same but weight varies
C. both of them vary
D. None of the above is true
Answer: (B)


34. The effect of circular movements on a person in a satellite around the earth is that:A. his mass becomes nil while the weight remains the same
B. his mass remains constant while weight becomes zero
C. his mass goes up while the weight remains unchanged
D. None of the above
Answer: (B)


35. A wooden block is floating in water. If 4/5 of its volume is immersed in water and volume of the water displaced is 800ml, the volume of the block is:
A. 1140 ml
B. 200 ml
C. 800 ml
D. 100 ml
Answer: (D)


36. A balloon filled with air is weighted (W) so that it just floats in water. When it is further pushed a short distance in water it will:
A. sink to the bottom
B. stay at the depth where it stands submerged
C. not come back to its original position
D. sink down a little further but will not reach the bottom
Answer: (D)


37. Oil, water and gas can be present in a well in the ascending order of:A. water, oil, gas
B. gas, water, oil
C. water, gas, oil
D. oil, water, gas
Answer: (A)


38. Mercury is preferred to water in barometer because:A. mercury is good conductor of heat
B. mercury is bright and hence its level can be easily read
C. mercury is available in pure form
D. mercury has high density and low surface tension
Answer: (D)


39. An aeroplane rises up:A. on account of upward thrust of air
B. as the air over the aeroplane is denser than that under the plane
C. as the pressure over its wings is more than the pressure under them
D. as its nose is pointed upwards
Answer: (A)


40. A boat filed with some stones is floating in water. If the stones are dropped into the water, the level of the water will:A. rise
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. insufficient data to predict
Answer: (B)


41. When a ship enters sea from a river, its level:A. remains same
B. rises
C. may or may not change
D. decreases
Answer: (C)


42. There is a hole in the boat through which water is seeping into the boat. Just before the boat capsizes :A. water level in the boat will increase
B. water level will decrease
C. water level will remain constant
D. None of these
Answer: (A)


43. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. How will the water level be affected when the ice cube melts?A. The level of water will go up
B. The level of water will go down
C. The level of water will remain unchanged
D. In the beginning the level will go up but later on the level will go down
Answer: (C)


44. Fathom is the unit of:A. sound
B. depth
C. distance
D. frequency
Answer: (B)


45. Ordinary clocks lose time during summer. It is so because the length of their pendulum:A. increases and so does the length of time
B. increases and therefore its duration of time decreases
C. decreases and therefore the length of time increases
D. decreases and therefore the length of time decreases
Answer: (A)


46. A body is attached to a spring balance suspended from a stand. The reading on the balance is 0.5 kg. The two together are detached from the stand and allowed to fall through a height. While falling the reading in the balance will be:A. zero
B. less than 0.5kg but not zero
C. more than 0.5 kg depending on the height
D. 0.5 kg
Answer: (A)


47. Two bars of gold and silver are weighed by spring balance and read 200 gms each. These bars are then suspended in a liquid and weighed by using the same balance. What could be derived?
A. Gold will weigh more than silver
B. Silver will weigh more than gold
C. Both the bars will be equal in weight
D. Nothing can be said, unless the density of the liquid is known
Answer: (A)


48. Which one of the following will take place when a watch based on oscillating spring is taken to a deep mine?
A. It will become slow
B. It will become fast
C. It will indicate the same time as on earth
D. It will stop working
Answer: (A)


49. Very small-time intervals are accurately measured by the:A. pulsars
B. while dwarfs
C. atomic clocks
D. quartz clocks
Answer: (C)


50. Match the following:
List I                                         List II
a. Cusec                                   1. Pressure
b. Byte                                      2. Intensity of Earthquake
c. Ricter                                    3. Rate of Flow
d. Bar                                       4. Computer Memory

A. a4, b1, c2, d3
B. a2, b4, c3, d1
C. a3, b4, c2, d1
D. a3, b2, c1, d4

Answer: (C)

UPSC CIVILS MAINS 2011 GENERAL ESSAY PAPER

ESSAY (Compulsory)

Time Allowed : Three Hours                              Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS

The essay must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued, to you. The name of the medium must .be stated clearly on the cover of the answer- book in the space provided for the purpose. No credit will be given to the essay written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
(Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate's grasp of his/ her' material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his/ her ability to think constructively and to present his/her ideas concisely, logically and effectively.)

Write an essay on any one of the following topics:    200
1. Creation of smaller states and the consequent administrative, economic and developmental implications.
2. Does Indian cinema shape our popular culture or merely reflect it?
3. Credit-based higher education system-status, opportunities and challenges.
4. In the Indian context, both human intelligence and technical intelligence are crucial in combating terrorism.

UPSC CIVILS MAINS 2011 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I

General Studies

Paper-I

Time Allowed : Three Hour                                   Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answer written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each:   20x3=60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV-A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to the Indian way of life.’ Critically examine this statement.

(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public considerations.’ Analyse this statements in the context of the judicial powers of the President of India.

(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of the ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.

(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implications of its amendment in 2003.

2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:   20

(a) Trace the salient sequence of events in the popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then, ‘Royal Indian Navy’ and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the view that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?

(b) Evaluate the influence of the three important women’s organizations of the early twentieth century in India on the Country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organizations constrained by their political objectives?

3. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:   20
(a) Critically examine the design of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of success than the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) in achieving its objectives?

(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standards Council of India, In what way has the August 2006 government notification made it more effective?

4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each: 12x5=60

(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.

(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).

(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.

(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forums’.

(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash-transfers’ to ‘Below Poverty Line’ (BPL) households.

(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).

5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each:   12x3=36

(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.

(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat privacy in the Indian Ocean.

(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.

(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.


6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following:  5x3=15
(a) ‘Benoy-Badal-Dinesh’ martyrdom

(b) Bharat Naujawan Sabha
(c) ‘Babbar Akali’ movement.
7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:  5X6 = 30

(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.

(b) Why the Central Statistics Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?

(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Comittee of the National Disaster Management Authority.

(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in the news recently?

(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.

(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.

8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each:  5X4= 20

(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.

(b) Write a sentence each on any five of the following traditional theatre forms:

(i) Bhand Pather
(ii) Swang
(iii) Maach
(iv) Bhaona
(v) Mudiyettu
(vi) Dashavatar

(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?

(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

9. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:    5x5=25

(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.

(b) The first-aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus-stop who suddenly faints.

(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (Each answer should not exceed 20 words).  2x7=14

(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar

(c) Lobsang Sangay

(d) P.R. Sreejesh

(e) Nileema Mishra

(f) V. Tejeswini Bai

(g) Aishwarya Narkar

UPSC CIVILS MAINS 2011 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-II

General Studies

Paper-II

Time Allowed : Three Hours                                    Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answer written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question.
The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question is indicated at the end of the question.
Two (2) graph sheets are attached to this question paper for attempting questions 9(b) and 10(c). The graph sheets are to be carefully detached from the question paper and securely attached to the answer book by the candidate.
1. Answer any two of the following in about 250 words:    20x2=40
(a) List the Central Asian Republics and identify those of particular strategic and economic importance to India. Examine the opportunities and bottlenecks in enhancing relations with these countries.
(b) Critically examine the security and strategic implications of the so-called ‘string of pearls’ theory for India.
(c) “Compared to the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA), the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation Free Trade Area (BIMSTEC FTA) seems to be more promising.” Critically evaluate.
2. Answer any three of the following in about 150 words each:  12x3=36
(a) Subsequent to the Nuclear Suppliers’ Group (NSG) waiver in 2008, what are the agreements on nuclear energy that India has signed with different countries?
(b) Trace the progress of India’s efforts for a joint counter-terrorism strategy with China. What are the likely implications of the recent Xinjiang violence on these efforts?
(c) Bring out the importance of the ‘Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference’ held in Dubai last year for Indian business.
(d) What are the salient features of the political and economic relationship between India and South Africa?
3. Answer either of the following in about 250 words:    20
(a) “The causes and implications of the Jasmine Revolution and its spread are as much economic in nature as they are political.” Critically evaluate.
(b) In the context of the ‘Euro-zone’ debt crisis, examine the proposed ‘six-pack’ solution. Do you think that this has a better chance of success than the earlier Stability and Growth Pact?
4. Answer any four of the following in about 150 words each:  12x4=48
(a) “As regards the increasing rates of melting of Arctic Sea ice, the interests of the Arctic Council nations may not coincide with those of the wider world.” Explain.
(b) Is there still a role for the concept of balance of power in contemporary international politics? Discuss.
(c) “Strategic interests seem to be replacing commercial interests for the host country with regard to Cam Ranh Bay.” Amplify.
(d) To what extent has the withdrawal of al-Shabab from Mogadishu given peace a real chance in Somalia? Assess.
(e) On a Formula-one (F-1) racing car track, information to drivers is generally signalled through the standardized use of flags of different colours. Describe the meanings associated with any six flags listed below:
(i) White flag
(ii) Black flag
(iii) Yellow flag
(iv) Blue flag
(v) Black and white flag divided diagonally
(vi) Chequered flag
(vii) Yellow and red striped flag
5. Comment on any thirteen of the following in about 50 words each:    5x13=65
(a) International Year of Chemistry
(b) The scourge of e-waste
(c) ‘Designer’ poultry eggs
(d) INSPIRE programme of the Department of Science and Technology
(e) The ‘Kessler syndrome’ with reference to space debris
(f) Omega-3 fatty acids in our food
(g) Difference between ‘spin-dyring’ and ‘tumble-drying’ technology with reference to drying of washed clothes
(h) The diminishing population of vultures
(i) ‘Arensic-bug’ and the significance of its discovery
(j) F-22 ‘Raptor’ aircraft
(k) ‘Concentrated’ solar energy and ‘photovoltaic’ solar energy
(l) Analog, hybrid and IP systems in CCTV technology
(m) Various applications of Kevlar
(n) Differences between Compact Disc (CD), Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) and Blu-ray Disc
6. Comment on the following in about 50 words each:    5x5=25
(a) Functions of the World Customs Organization. (WCO)
(b) Success of international intervention in Cote d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast)
(c) Strategies adopted by Colombia to eliminates its drug cartels
(d) World Food Programme (WFP) of the United Nations (UN)
(e) Sculpture of the broken chair in front of the UN building at Geneva
7. Why have each of the following been in the news recently? (Each answer in a sentence or two only)    2x10=20
(a) Tiangong-1
(b) K-computer
(c) Gliese 581g
(d) MABLE robot
(e) ‘Operation Shady Rat’
(f) ‘SAGA-220’
(g) ‘Billion Acts of Green’
(h) L’Aquila earthquake
(i) OPERA detecter at Gran Sasso
(j) Saturn’s Titan

8. Why have the following been in the news recently? (Each answer in a sentence or two only)    2x5=10
(a) 'News International' newspaper
(b) Mustafa Abdul-Jalil
(c) Abel Kirui
(d) Natalie Portman
(e) Nawaf Salam


9. (a) List the requisities of a good table.
Present the following in a suitable tabular form:     5
(a) In-1980 out of a 1750 workers of a factory, 1200 were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 1985 the number of union workers increased to 1580 of which 1290 were men. On the other hand the number of non-union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were men. In 1990 there were 1800 employees who belonged to the union and 50 who did not belong to the union. Of all the employees in 1990, 300 were women of which only 8 did not belong to the union.
(b) Draw an given for the following distribution, Read the median from the graph. How many students get between 60 and 72?

Marks	No. of students
50-55	6
55-60	10
60-65	22
65-70	30
70-75	16
75-80	12
80-100	15

(c) From the following data calculate the missing frequency:

No. of tables	No. of persons cured
4-8	11
8-12	13
12-16	16
16-20	14
20-24	?
24-28	9
28-32	17
32-36	6
36-40	4

 The average number of tables to cure fever was 19.9
(d) Life time of 400 tubes tested in a company is distributed as follows:

Life-time(Hours)	No. of tubes
300-399	14
400-499	46
500-599	58
600-699	76
700-799	68
800-899	62
900-999	48
1000-1099	22
1100-1199	6

Determine:        4
(i) Relative frequency of sixth class.
(ii) Percentage of tubes whose life-time does not exceed 600 hours.
(iii) Percentage of tubes whose life-time is greater than or equal to 900 hours.
(iv) Percentage of tubes whose life-time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours.
10. (a) A car travels 25km at 25km at 50 kph, and 25 km at 75 kph. Find the average speed of the car for the entire journey.
(b) The mean of 200 items was 50. Later on it was found that two items were wrongly read as 92 and 8 instead of 192 and 88. Find the correct mean.    4
(c) Students were asked how long it took them to walk to school on a particular morning. A cumulative frequency distribution was formed.

Time taken (minutes)	C.f.
<5	28
<10	45
<15	81
<20	143
<25	280
<30	349
<35	374
<40	395
<45	400

(i) Draw a cumulative Frequency curve.
(ii) Estimate how many students took less than 18 minutes.
(iii) 6% of students took x minutes or longer. Find x.        6

(d) An investors buys Rs. 1200 worth of shares in a company each month. During the first five months he bought the shares at a price of Rs. 10, Rs. 12, Rs. 15, Rs. 20 and Rs. 24 per share. After 5 months, what is the average price paid for the shares by him?

Branches of Science

• Acoustics : The study of sound (or the science of sound).
• Aerodynamics : The study of the motion and control of solid bodies like aircraft, missiles, etc., in air.
• Aeronautics : The science or art of flight.
• Aeronomy : The study of the earth's upper atmosphere, including its composition, density, temperature and chemical reactions, as recorded by sounding rockets and earth satellites.
• Aerostatics : The branch of statics that deals with gases in equilibrium and with gases and bodies in them.
• Aetiology : The science of causation.
• Agrobiology : The science of plant life and plant nutrition.
• Agronomy : The science of soil management and the production of field crops.
• Agrostology : The study of grasses.
• Alchemy : Chemistry in ancient times.
• Anatomy : The science dealing with the structure of animals, plants or human body.
• Anthropology : The science that deals with the origins, physical and cultural development of mankind.
• Arboriculture : Cultivation of trees and vegetables.
• Archaeology : The study of antiquities.
• Astrochemistry : The study of interstellar matter with a view to knowing the origin of
  universe.
• Astrology : The ancient art of predicting the course of human destinies with the help of indications deduced from the position and movement of the heavenly bodies.
• Astronautics : The science of space travel.
• Astronomy : The study of the heavenly bodies.
• Astrophysics : The branch of astronomy concerned with the physical nature of heavenly bodies.
• Autoecology : The study deals with the ecology of species.
• Bacteriology : The study of bacteria.
• Biochemistry : The study of chemical processes of living things.
• Bioclimatology : Studies the effects of climate upon living organisms.
• Biology : The study of living things.
• Biometry : The application of mathematics to the study of living things.
• Biomechanics : The study of the mechanical laws relating to the movement or structure of living organisms.
• Biometeorology : Studies the effects of atmospheric conditions on living organisms.
• Bionics : The study of functions, characteristics and phenomena observed in the living world and the application of this knowledge to the world of machines.
• Bionomics : The study of the relation of an organism to its environments.
• Bionomy : The science of the laws of life.
• Biophysics : The physics of vital processes (living things).
• Botany : The study of plants.
• Ceramics : The art and technology of making objects from clay, etc. (pottery).
• Chemistry : The study of elements and their laws of combination and behaviour.
• Chemotherpy : The treatment of disease by using chemical substances.
• Chronobiology : The study of the duration of life.
• Chronology : The science of arranging time in periods and ascertaining the dates and historical order of past events.
• Climatotherapy : The treatment of disease through suitable climatic environment, often, but not always, found in recognised health resorts. As climate is subject to seasonal variations, the required environment may have to be sought in different
  localities at different periods of the year.
• Conchology : The branch of zoology dealing with the shells of mollusks.
• Cosmogony : The science of the nature of heavenly bodies.
• Cosmography : The science that describes and maps the main features of the universe.
• Cryobiology : The science that deals with the study of organisms, especially warmblooded animals, at low temperature. The principal effect of cold on living tissues is destruction of life or preservation of it at a reduced level of activity.
• Crystallography : The study of the structure, forms and properties of crystals.
• Cryogenics : The science dealing with the production, control and application of very low temperatures.
• Cryotherapy : Use of cold, but not freezing cold, as a form of treatment. Hypothermia may be deliberately induced during surgery, for instance, to decrease a patient's oxygen requirement.
• Cytochemistry : The branch of cytology dealing with the chemistry of cells.
• Cytogenetics : The branch of biology dealing with the study of heredity from the point of view of cytology and genetics.
• Cytology : The study of cells, especially their formation, structure and functions.
• Dactylography : The study of fingerprints for the purpose of identification.
• Dermatology : The study of skin and skin diseases.
• Ecology : The study of the relation of animals and plants to their surroundings, animate and inanimate.
• Econometrics : The application of mathematics in testing economic theories.
• Economics : The science dealing with the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services.
• Electronics : Studies the development, behaviour and applications of electronic devices and circuits.
• Electrostatics : It is a study of static electricity.
• Embryology : The study of development of embryos.
• Entomology : The study of insects.
• Epidemiology : The branch of medicine dealing with epidemic diseases.
• Epigraphy : The study of inscriptions.
• Ethnography : A branch of anthropology dealing with the scientific description of individual cultures.
• Ethnology : A branch of anthropology that deals with the origin, distribution and distinguishing characteristics of the races of mankind.
• Ethology : The study of animal behaviour.
• Eugenics : The study of the production of better offspring by the careful selection of parents.
• Fractography : A study of fractures in metal surfaces.
• Genealogy : The study of family origins and history. It includes the compilation of lists of ancestors and arranging them in pedigree charts.
• Genecology : The study of genetical composition of plant population in relation to their habitats.
• Genesiology : The science of generation.
• Genetics : The branch of biology dealing with the phenomena of heredity and the laws governing it.
• Geobiology : The biology of terrestrial life.
• Geobotany : The branch of botany dealing with all aspects of relations between plants and the earth's surface.
• Geochemistry : The study of the chemical composition of the earth's crust and the changes which take place within it.
• Geodesy : Methods of surveying the earth for making maps and corelating geological, gravitational and magnetic measurements. It is a branch of geo-physics.
• Geography : The development of science of the earth's surface, physical features, climate, population, etc.
• Geology : The science that deals with the physical history of the earth.
• Geomedicine : The branch of medicine dealing with the influence of climate and environmental conditions on health.
• Geomorphology : The study of the characteristics, origin and development of land forms.
• Geophysics : The physics of the earth.
• Gerontology : The study of old age, its phenomena, diseases, etc.
• Glaciology : The study of ice and the action of ice in all its forms, and therefore includings now.
• Gynaecology : A study of diseases of women's reproductive organs.
• Histology : The study of tissues.
• Horticulture : The cultivation of flowers, fruits, vegetables and ornamental plants.
• Hydrodynamics : The mathematical study of the forces, energy and pressure of liquid in motion.
• Hydrography : The science of water measurements of the earth with special reference to their use for navigation.
• Hydrology : The study of water with reference to its occurrence and properties in the hydrosphere and atmosphere.
• Hydrometallurgy : The process of extracting metals at ordinary temperature by bleaching ore with liquids.
• Hydrometeorology : The study of the occurrence, movement and changes in the state of water in the atmosphere.
• Hydropathy : The treatment of disease by the internal and external use of water.
• Hydroponics : The cultivation of plants by placing the roots in liquid nutrient solutions rather than in soil.
• Hydrostatics : The mathematical study of forces and pressures in liquids.
• Hygiene : The science of health and its preservation.
• Limnology : The study of lakes.
• Lithology : It deals with systematic description of rocks.
• Mammography : Radiography of the mammary glands.
• Metallography : The study of the crystalline structures of metals and alloys.
• Metallurgy : The process of extracting metals from their ores.
• Meteorology : The science of the atmosphere and its phenomena.
• Metrology : The scientific study of weights and measures.
• Microbiology : The study of minute living organisms, including bacteria, molds and
  pathogenic protozoa.
• Molecular biology : The study of the structure of the molecules which are of importance in biology.
• Morpbology : The science of organic forms and structures.
• Mycology : The study of fungi and fungus diseases.
• Neurology : The study of the nervous system, its functions and its disorders.
• Neuropathology : The study of diseases of the nervous system.
• Nosology : The classification of diseases.
• Numerology : The study of numbers. The study of the date and year of one's birth and to determine the influence on one's future life.
• Odontology : The scientific study of the teeth.
• Optics : The study of nature and properties of light.
• Ornithology : The study of birds.
• Orthopedics : The science of prevention, diagnosis and treatment of diseases and abnormalities of musculoskeletal system.
• Osteology : The study of the bones.
• Osteopathy : A therapeutic system based upon detecting and correcting faulty structure.
• Otology : The study of the ear and its diseases.
• Otorhinolaryngology : Study of diseases of ear, nose and throat.
• Paleobotany : The study of fossil plants.
• Paleontology : The study of fossils.
• Pathology : The study of diseases.
• Pharyngology : The science of the pharynx and its diseases.
• Phenology : The study of periodicity phenomena of plants.
• Philology : The study of written records, their authenticity, etc.
• Phonetics : The study of speech sounds and the production, transmission, reception, etc.
• Photobiology : The branch of biology dealing with the effect of light on organisms.
• Phrenology : The study of the faculties and qualities of minds from the shape of the skull.
• Phthisiology : The scientific study of tuberculosis.
• Phycology : The study of algae.
• Physical Science : The study of natural laws and processes other than those peculiar to living matters, as in physics, chemistry and astronomy.
• Physics : The study of the properties of matter.
• Physiography : The science of physical geography.
• Physiology : The study of the functioning of the various organs of living beings.
• Phytogeny : The science dealing with origin and growth of plants.
• Planetology : A study of the planets of the Solar System.
• Pomology : The science that deals with fruits and fruit growing.
• Psychology : The study of human and animal behaviour.
• Radio Astronomy : The study of heavenly bodies by the reception and analysis of the radio frequency electro-magnetic radiations which they emit or reflect.
• Radiobiology : The branch of biology which deals with the effects of radiations on living organlsms.
• Radiology : The study of X-rays and radioactivity.
• Rheology : The study of the deformation and flow of matter.
• Seismology : The study of earthquakes and the phenomena associated with it.
• Selenology : The scientific study of moon, its nature, origin, movement, etc.
• Sericulture : The raising of silkworms for the production of raw silk.
• Sociology : The study of human society.
• Spectroscopy : The study of matter and energy by the use of spectroscope.
• Statistics : The collection and analysis of numerical data.
• Tectonics : Study of structural features of earth's crust.
• Teleology : The study of the evidences of design or purpose in nature.
• Telepathy : Communication between minds by some means other than sensory perception.
• Therapeutics : The science and art of healing.
• Topography : A special description of a part or region.
• Toxicology : The study of poisons.
  Virology : The study of viruses.
• Zoogeography : The study of the geological distributions of animals.
• Zoology : The study of animal life.
• Zootaxy : Classification of animals.