U.P.P.S.C General Studies Solved Paper 2011

1. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent is found at—
(A) Lothal
(B) Harappa
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Mundigak

Ans : (C)

2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of—
(A) Ear
(B) Neck
(C) Arm
(D) Wrist

Ans : (B)

3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ?
(A) Anga, Magadh
(B) Kosal, Videha
(C) Kuru, Panchal
(D) Matsya, Surasena

Ans : (C)
4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Asoka
(C) Rudradaman
(D) Skandagupta

Ans : (A)

5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of—
(A) Asoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Harsha
(D) Dharmapala

Ans : (A)

6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Kumaragupta
(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at—
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajgrih
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath

Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ?
(A) Chola
(B) Chalukya
(C) Pala
(D) Sena

Ans : (B)

9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ?
(A) Jayachandra Gahadavala
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Man Singh

Ans : (C)

10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Razia
(C) Balban
(D) Alauddin Khalji

Ans : (A)

11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Todar Mal
(C) Bhagwan Das
(D) Bhar Mal

Ans : (B)

12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement ‘I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammad Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Aurangzeb

Ans : (C)

13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of—
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao I
(C) Balaji Rao
(D) Madnav Rao I

Ans : (B)

14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at—
(A) Agra
(B) Ajmer
(C) Delhi
(D) Fatehpur Sikri

Ans : (A)

15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Pakhawaj
(C) Veena
(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)
16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latter’s position against the Rajputs ?
(A) Azam
(B) Akbar
(C) Muazzam
(D) Kam Baksh

Ans : (B)

17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese

Ans : (D)

18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ?
(A) Child marriage
(B) Infanticide
(C) Sati
(D) Slavery

Ans : (D)

19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ?
(A) Diwan Maniram Dutta
(B) Kandarpeshwar Singh
(C) Purandar Singh
(D) Piali Barua

Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ?
(A) Government of India Act 1858
(B) Indian Councils Act 1861
(C) Royal Titles Act 1876
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892

Ans : (A)

21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at—

(A) Bombay
(B) Poona
(C) Madras
(D) Calcutta

Ans : (A)

22. The paper ‘Indian Mirror’ was published during 1861 from—
(A) Bombay
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Pondicherry

Ans : (B)

23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886—
(A) East India Association
(B) London India Society
(C) Indian Association
(D) Indian National Conference

Ans : (C)

24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ?
(A) Lord Lytton
(B) Lord Ripon
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Hastings

Ans : (A)

25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was—
(A) R. B. Ghosh
(B) B. G. Tilak
(C) Annie Besant
(D) G. K. Gokhale

Ans : (A)

26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Shyamji Krishna Varma
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

Ans : (C)

27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by—
(A) N. M. Joshi
(B) B. P. Wadia
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) S. A. Dange

Ans : (B)
28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroy’s Executive Council as a
protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Shankaran Nair
(D) Jamnalal Bajaj

Ans : (C)

29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) N. G. Ranga
(C) Rajkumar Shukla
(D) Rajendra Prasad

Ans : (A)
30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ?
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Marathi

Ans : (A)

31. Who was the author of the book ‘Bandi Jiwan’ ?
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Hema Chandrakar
(C) Ram Prasad Bismil
(D) Sachindra Sanyal

Ans : (D)

32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :
1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact
2. Execution of Bhagat Singh
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931
4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given
below—
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2

Ans : (A)

33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Ambika Charan Majumdar
List-II
1. Home Rule Movement
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Lucknow Session of Indian
National Congress, 1916
4. Lahore Session of Indian
National Congress, 1929
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 1 4

Ans : (A)

34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 "a car which has brake but no engine" ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C. Rajgopalachari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) S. C. Bose

Ans : (A)

35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ?
(A) Indrasen
(B) M. N. Roy
(C) Somendranath Tagore
(D) Shachindranath Sanyal

Ans : (B)

36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Vinoba Bhave

Ans : (D)
37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as ‘political blackmail’ ?
(A) Lord Chelmsford
(B) Lord Wavel
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Montague

Ans : (C)

38. Muslim League observed the ‘Direct Action Day’ on—
(A) 12 August 1942
(B) 16 August 1943
(C) 16 August 1946
(D) 14 August 1947

Ans : (C)

39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period :
1. Liberation of Goa
2. Dalai Lama fled to India
3. Chou En-Lai visited India
4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (D)
40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Chalukyas

Ans : (B)

41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly
1. Buddhist
2. Jain
3. Saivite
4. Vaishnavite
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 and 3

Ans : (C)
42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ?
(A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur
(B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar
(C) Kailash Temple, Ellora
(D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho

Ans : (C)

43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Ahmadnagar
(B) Bijapur
(C) Golconda
(D) Hampi

Ans : (D)
44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar’s Tomb —Sikandara
(B) Jahangir’s Tomb —Sahdara
(C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti —Fatehpur Sikri
(D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia —Ajmer

Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Nabha
(C) Nankana
(D) Nander

Ans : (C)

46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ?
1. Delhi
2. Jaipur
3. Ujjain
4. Varanasi
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (D)

47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Shivaji
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Ans : (D)

48. Who among the following had founded the ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’
to revive ancient art traditions of India ?
(A) Abanindra Nath Tagore
(B) Nand Lal Bose
(C) Asit Kumar Haldhar
(D) Amrita Shergill

Ans : (A)

49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy
(D) Vivekanand

Ans : (B)

50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in—
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia

Ans : (C)
51. Who among the following had said, ‘God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other’ ?
(A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(B) Maharaja Sher Singh
(C) Maharaja Dalip Singh
(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Balarama
(C) Kartikeya
(D) Maitreya

Ans : (B)

53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru —Hind Swaraj
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad —India Wins Freedom
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose —Indian Struggle
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai —Unhappy India

Ans : (A)

54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1952
(C) 2066
(D) 2087

Ans : (A)

55. The smallest million city of India is—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Rajkot
(D) Vijayawada

Ans : (C)
56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ?
(A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar
(B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc.
(C) Development of mining industries and industrialization
(D) All the above

Ans : (D)

57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ?
(A) Class VI
(B) Class V and VI
(C) Class IV, V and VI
(D) Class III, IV, V and VI

Ans : (D)

58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans : (B)

59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ‘ring of fire’ ?
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

60. ‘Operation Green’ was launched in Uttar Pradesh on—
(A) July 1, 2001
(B) October 2, 2001
(C) July 1, 2005
(D) June 6, 2006

Ans : (C)

61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Costa Rica
(C) India
(D) Switzerland

Ans : (D)

62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans : (A)

63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year—
(A) 1968
(B) 1970
(C) 1972
(D) 1974

Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992

64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Simlipal —Assam
(B) Nokrek —Meghalaya
(C) Dehong Debang —Sikkim
(D) Agasthyamalai —Karnataka

Ans : (B)

65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is—
(A) 1000 : 930
(B) 1000 : 934
(C) 1000 : 926
(D) 1000 : 933

Ans : (D)

66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal

Ans : (C)

67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand

Ans : (B)

68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal

Ans : (B)

69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ?
(A) 1921
(B) 1881
(C) 1911
(D) 1931

Ans : (B)

70. Which of the following countries are included in the ‘Golden Crescent’ ?
1. Afghanistan
2. Iran
3. Iraq
4. Pakstan
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

Ans : (D)

71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley —Diamond
(B) Witwatersrand —Gold
(C) Katomga —Copper
(D) Saar —Iron ore

Ans : (D)

72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) India
(D) Pakistan

Ans : (D)

73. Alexandria is a port of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Israel
(C) Jordan
(D) Libya

Ans : (A)

74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan

Ans : (B)

75. Persian Gulf does not form border with—
(A) Bahrain
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Oman

Ans : (D)

76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ?
(A) Japan
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) China

Ans : (A)

77. The Equator passes through—

(A) Central African Republic
(B) Kenya
(C) Sarawak
(D) Venezuela

Ans : (B)

78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? Minerals—Producing Areas
(A) Copper—Arizona
(B) Coal—Carajas
(C) Iron Ore—Rastanura
(D) Petroleum—Donbas

Ans : (A)

79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ?
1. Aconagua
2. Cotopaxi
3. Etna
4. Fujiyama
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans : Incorrect Options

80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ghana—Accra
(B) Kenya—Nairobi
(C) Namibia—Windhooks
(D) Nigeria—Rabat

Ans : (D)

81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ?
(A) Davis Strait
(B) Denmark Strait
(C) Strait of Dover
(D) Strait of Gibralter

Ans : (C)

82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) Russia
(C) Middle Africa
(D) South-East Asia

Ans : (C)

83. The biggest port in India is—
(A) Vishakhapatnam
(B) Mumbai
(C) Tuticorin
(D) Kandla

Ans : (B)

84. Sankosh river forms boundary between—
(A) Bihar and West Bengal
(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam and West Bengal
(D) Bihar and Jharkhand

Ans : (B)

85. Pir Panjal range lies in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Punjab
(D) Uttarakhand

Ans : (B)

86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ?
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi

Ans : (C)

87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Kosi
(C) Chambal
(D) Godawari

Ans : (C)

88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ?
1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane
2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane
3. Longer crushing season
4. Cheap labour
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ?
(A) Millets and Rice
(B) Cotton and Tobacco
(C) Tea and Coffee
(D) Vegetables and Fruits

Ans : (A)

90. Teak and Sal are the products of—
(A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
(B) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(C) Tropical Thorn Forests
(D) Alpine Forests

Ans : (A)

91. On which one of the following rivers is ‘Tulbul’ Project located ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Ravi
(C) Beas
(D) Jhelum

Ans : (D)

92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ?
(A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(B) Son Muda in Shahdol district
(C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district
(D) Mandla plateau

Ans : (A)

93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Nuclear Plant—Year of Commissioning
(A) Kota—1989
(B) Kakrapar—1984
(C) Kaiga—1999
(D) Kalpakkam—1995

Ans : (C)

94. Rubber industry in India is located at—
(A) Panjim
(B) Bangalore
(C) Puducherri
(D) Aurangabad

Ans : (B)
95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at—
(A) Pokharan
(B) Chandipur
(C) Cape Canveral
(D) Sri Harikota

Ans : (A)

96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were—
(A) China, England, Russia
(B) China, India, Russia
(C) India, USA, Japan
(D) Japan, England, USA

Ans : (C)

97. Three ‘Phalcon AWACS’ supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in—
(A) March 2009
(B) April 2009
(C) May 2009
(D) February 2009

Ans : (C)

98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is—
(A) Al Gore
(B) Muhammad Yunus
(C) Martti Ahtisaari
(D) Wangari Maathai

Ans : (C)

99. Who among the following has been chosen for ‘Hoover Medal’ in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ?
(A) Sam Patroda
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Baba Amte

Ans : (B)

100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in—
(A) Geneva
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (B)

101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by—
(A) Manmohan Singh
(B) Kamal Nath
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Kapil Sibbal

Ans : (B)

102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Meira Kumar

Ans : (D)

103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ?
(A) Mall E
(B) Slumdog Millionaire
(C) The Dark Night
(D) The Reader

Ans : (B)

104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Recent Padma Awardees—Awards
(A) Bhimsen Joshi– Bharat Ratna
(B) Abhinav Bindra – Padma Vibhushan
(C) Shekhar Gupta – Padma Bhushan
(D) Aishwarya Rai – Padma Shri

Ans : (B)

105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Hritik Roshan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) Salman Khan

Ans : (B)

106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ?
(A) Cairo
(B) London
(C) Shanghai
(D) Yekaterinburg

Ans : (D)

107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ?
1. Russia
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Iran
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (D)

108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Gautam Gambhir
(D) M. S. Dhoni

Ans : (D)

109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is—
(A) Sudesh Kumar
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Mahesh Bhupati
(D) Abhinav Bindra

Ans : (D)

110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) China
(B) Malaysia
(C) Pakistan
(D) South Korea

Ans : (D)

111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Women’s Football Championship held in March 2009, was—
(A) Manipur
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal

Ans : (A)

112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are—
(A) Badminton and Table Tennis
(B) Basketball and Volleyball
(C) Tennis and Wrestling
(D) Softball and Baseball

Ans : (D)

113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sushil Kumar—Wrestling
(B) Anand Pawar—Badminton
(C) Arjun Rao—Archery
(D) Pankaj Advani—Shooting

Ans : (D)

114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was—
(A) Dilip Tirkey
(B) Rajpal Singh
(C) Sandeep Singh
(D) V. Raghunath

Ans : (C)

115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in—
(A) India
(B) Malaysia
(C) South Korea
(D) UAE

Ans : (B)

116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan

Ans : (B)

117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Mixed cropping
(C) Inter-cropping
(D) Alley cropping

Ans : (D)

118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of—
(A) Paddy
(B) Berseem
(C) Wheat
(D) Groundnut

Ans : (A)

119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at—
(A) 1/3 bar
(B) 1/2 bar
(C) 2/3 bar
(D) 1 bar

Ans : (A)

120. The place of origin of red gram is—
(A) America
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Egypt

Ans : (C)

121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at—
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Solan
(C) Palampur
(D) Pant Nagar

Ans : (B)

122. Heroin is obtained from—
(A) Indian hemp
(B) Opium poppy
(C) Tobacco
(D) Arecanut

Ans : (B)

123. The leading producer of soybean in India is—
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans : (B)

124. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of—
(A) Mustard
(B) Linseed
(C) Sunflower
(D) Sesamum

Ans : (A)

125. Farming of cloves is done in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

126. Consider the following statements— Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea
coast.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)

127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal

Ans : (C)

128. The most popular sport goods come from—
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Jalandhar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Agra

Ans : (B)

129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Punjab National Bank

Ans : (C)

130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as—
(A) Indian Airways
(B) India Airlines
(C) Air India
(D) Indo-Air

Ans : (A)

131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Cotton textile
(C) Jute
(D) Cement

Ans : (B)

132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at—
(A) Manila
(B) Washington
(C) New York
(D) Geneva

Ans : (B)

133. Inside trading is related to—
(A) Share market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) International trade

Ans : (A)

134. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(C) Co-existence of rich and poor
(D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy

Ans : (B)

135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at—
(A) Chitranjan
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Varanasi
(D) Chennai

Ans : (C)

136. Invisible Export means export of—
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling

Ans : (A)

137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at—
(A) Doha
(B) Geneva
(C) Rome
(D) New York

Ans : (B)

138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Muhammad Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi

Ans : (B)

139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is—
(A) 689 per square km
(B) 589 per square km
(C) 489 per square km
(D) 389 per square km

Ans : (A)

140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ?
(A) Saharia
(B) Tharu
(C) Agaria
(D) Mahigir

Ans : (B)

141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for—
(A) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(B) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(C) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(D) 90 Lok Sabha seats

Ans : (C)

142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of—
(A) Soviet Russia
(B) Japan
(C) Germany
(D) America

Ans : (A)

143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is—
(A) 38•87
(B) 43•53
(C) 33•12
(D) 42•22

Ans : (D)

144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ?
(A) Mata-Tila
(B) Meja
(C) Rihand
(D) Ram-Ganga

Ans : (D)

145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Jhansi
(C) Mirjapur
(D) Hamirpur

Ans : (A)

146. Firozabad is famous for producing—
(A) Bangles
(B) Locks
(C) Knives
(D) Shoes

Ans : (A)

147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ?
(A) Birha
(B) Dhola Maru
(C) Kajri
(D) Rasia

Ans : (B)

148. Syed Salar Fair is held at—
(A) Bahraich
(B) Mankapur
(C) Barabanki
(D) Khalilabad

Ans : (A)

149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in—
(A) Barabanki
(B) Bareilly
(C) Lucknow
(D) Rampur

Ans : (C)

150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Saharanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi

Ans : (C)

MPPSC GENERAL STUDIES SOLVED PAPER

1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid

2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal

3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea

4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami

5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama

6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication

7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region

8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia

9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle

11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?
(A) Goat
(B) Lion
(C) Reindeer
(D) None of these

12. How much is the area of India ?
(A) 32,87,263 sq. km
(B) 99,76,140 sq. km
(C) 95,97,000 sq. km
(D) 31,40,200 sq. km

13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Goa
(C) Indira point
(D) Rameshwaram

14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are—
(A) Dharwar
(B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan
(D) Cuddapah

15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called—
(A) The Assam Himalayas
(B) The Punjab Himalayas
(C) The Nepal Himalayas
(D) The Kumaon Himalayas

16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called—
(A) Bhabar
(B) Khadar
(C) Tarai
(D) Bangar

17. Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Chambal
(C) Gandak
(D) Son

18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh

19. The 'Kalabaisakhis' originate during—
(A) Winter season
(B) Rainy season
(C) Period of retreating monsoon
(D) Summers

20. What type of forests are the 'Sunderbans' ?
(A) Tidal forests
(B) Monsoon forests
(C) Tropical Evergreen forests
(D) Temperate Evergreen forests

21. The 'Regur' soil is—
(A) Red soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) None of these

22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?
(A) The Ganga
(B) The Indus
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi

23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

24. Which mineral is known as 'Black Gold' ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Bauxite
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane

26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Bihar

28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Sugarcane

29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Maize

30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab

32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka

33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?
(A) Cropping system
(B) Water supply and moisture
(C) Availability of land
(D) All of these

34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is—
(A) Jhum
(B) Kumari
(C) Penda
(D) All of these

35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Mandsaur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Indore

36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?
(A) Small and fragmented land holdings
(B) Lack of capital
(C) Faulty marketing system
(D) All of the above

37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?
(A) Increase in agricultural production
(B) Reduction in the import of food grains
(C) Prosperity of the farmers
(D) Regional imbalance

38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?
(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers
(B) To link east and west flowing rivers of the peninsular
(C) To link the rivers of India with the rivers of Pakistan
(D) None of the above

39. Which of the following is called the 'Cottonopolis' of India ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Agra
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad

40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :
(A) Fuel
(B) Mixed with jaggery ('gur')
(C) Mixed in sugar
(D) None of the above

41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sea shells
(C) Slag from steel plant
(D) All of the above

42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Satna
(B) Durg
(C) Narnaul
(D) None of these

43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?
(A) Regional variations in relief
(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India
(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals
(D) All of the above

44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh

45. Who used the method of ranking coefficient for the first time in India in order to calculate agricultural productivity ?
(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi
(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh
(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall
(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp

46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?
(A) More investment in productive activities
(B) Increased savings
(C) Population control
(D) All of the above

47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India's population ?
(A) 1901–1921
(B) 1921–1951
(C) 1951–1981
(D) 1981–2001

48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?
(A) Increase in foreign trade
(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks
(C) Direct foreign investment
(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following is a result of 'Green House Effect' ?
(A) Rise in temperature
(B) Industrial development
(C) Population growth
(D) None of these

50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Jaundice
(D) AIDS

51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland

52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?
(A) Rajkot
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hyderabad

53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar

54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Betul Plateau
(B) Pulicat Lake
(C) Bharner Mountain Range
(D) Kaimur Hills

55. The 'Bad land' landform is found in—
(A) Thar desert
(B) Chambal valley
(C) Sundarban delta
(D) Gulf of Kachchh

56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Rajasthan

57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Magh Bihu
(B) Haryana—Tea Festival
(C) Punjab—Hola Mohalla
(D) Madhya Pradesh—Fair of Nagaji

58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Madhya Pradesh

59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is—
(A) 25
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 37

60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Koel
(B) Mayur
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Mriganayanee

61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?
(A) Panthalassa
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of—
(A) The convergence of two continental plates
(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate
(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates
(D) None of the above

63. Exfoliation is most active—
(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly
(B) in limestone areas
(C) at high altitudes
(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature

64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?
(A) Rift valley
(B) Crevasses
(C) Talus
(D) Yardang

65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?
(A) Hydraulic action
(B) Deflation
(C) Corrosion
(D) Attrition

66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?
(A) Tarn
(B) Lagoon
(C) Lappies
(D) Doline

67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?
(A) Glacial erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) River erosion
(D) Wind deposition

68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?
(A) Lake Chilka
(B) Lake Pulicat
(C) Lake Toba
(D) None of these

69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?
(A) Seismograph
(B) Hythergraph
(C) Altimeter
(D) None of these

70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Alfred Wegener—Plate Tectonics
(B) Archdeacon pratt—Continental Drift Theory
(C) William Moris Davis—Geographical Cycle of Erosion
(D) Walter Penck—Theory of Isostasy

71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?
(A) Rockies
(B) Fujiyoma
(C) Salt range
(D) Caucasus

72. The example of an intermontane plateau is—
(A) The Plateau of Bolivia
(B) The Plateau of Antrim
(C) The Deccan Plateau
(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia

73. Monadnocks are situated in—
(A) Mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Peneplain
(D) Loess plain

74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called—
(A) Solar constant
(B) Insolation
(C) Heat budget
(D) Terrestrial radiation

76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over—
(A) Poles
(B) Near the equator
(C) Coastal regions
(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60°N

77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?
(A) 30°to 35°latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) 10°North latitude
(C) 60°latitude
(D) None of the above

78. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases
(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases
(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer
(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases

79. Which pair is incorrect ?
(A) Fohn—Dry and warm wind
(B) Chinook —Snow eater
(C) Mistral —Winter season
(D) Bora —North America

80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Hurricane
(C) Typhoon
(D) Sirocco

81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Inselberg
(C) Mushroom rock
(D) Zeugen

82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) Anticyclonic rainfall

83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Troposphere

84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is —
(A) 78 : 22
(B) 71 : 29
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 20 : 80

85. The northern hemisphere is called as—
(A) The land hemisphere
(B) The water hemisphere
(C) Water planet
(D) None of these

86. The ocean's greatest depth is—
(A) Aleutian Trench
(B) Japan Trench
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Java Trench

87. The zone of highest salinity is—
(A) The tropical zone of the sea
(B) The temperate zone of the sea
(C) The polar zone of the sea
(D) None of the above

88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?
(A) Kurushio current
(B) California current
(C) Okhotsk current
(D) Falkland current

89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?
(A) Ellice
(B) Barren
(C) Krakatao
(D) Sandwich

90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Hunting and fishing
(D) None of these

91. Bushman is associated with—
(A) Kalahari desert
(B) Congo basin
(C) Himalaya mountains
(D) Malwa plateau

92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Punjab

93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Assam

94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Asia

95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?
(A) Cold Polar Region
(B) Sahara
(C) South-Eastern Asia
(D) Kalahari

96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?
(A) India
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Japan

97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?
(A) Kalgoorlie
(B) Oxford
(C) Singapore
(D) Islamabad

98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Concentric Zone Theory—E.W. Burgess
(B) Sector Theory—Alfred Weber
(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory—Homer Hoyt
(D) Fused Growth Theory—Griffith Taylor

99. The largest producer of rice in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh

100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?
(A) 10°celcius temperature at the time of sowing
(B) Loamy soils
(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall
(D) Level land

101. Which of the following is also grown as a 'Zaid' crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize for fodder
(D) Jute

102. Tea can be grown on—
(A) Hill slopes
(B) Plains
(C) Swamps
(D) None of these

103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Coffee

104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?
(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas
(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton
(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall
(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region

106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

107. Grand Bank is a major producer of—
(A) Rice
(B) Marine fisheries
(C) Iron ore
(D) Tea

108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Peat
(D) Limonite

109. Manganese is used for making—
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Paint
(C) China clay
(D) In all these

110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Assam

111. Bauxite is used for making—
(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these

112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Africa

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Jharia coalfield—Jharkhand
(B) Girdih coalfield—West Bengal
(C) Korba coalfield—Madhya Pradesh
(D) Umaria coalfield—Chhattisgarh

114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of these

115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Lower Sileru—Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagarjun Sagar—Karnataka
(C) Koyna—Maharashtra
(D) Pong—Punjab

116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Jog—Waterfall
(B) Ankleshwar—Mineral oilfield
(C) Bokaro—Gold mine
(D) Paradwip—Iron and steel plant

117. Not related to textile industry is—
(A) Spinning
(B) Weaving
(C) Jute
(D) Pulp

118. Which is India's first oil refinery ?
(A) Digboi
(B) Panipat
(C) Trombay
(D) Vishakhapatnam

119. Manchester is known for—
(A) Silk Industry
(B) Woollen Textile
(C) Cotton Textile
(D) None of these

120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?
(A) Road Transport
(B) Rail Transport
(C) Ocean Transport
(D) None of these

Answers:
 
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 
110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B)
116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong.
117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)

INDIAN HISTORY MCQs

1. Where is the Indus Civilization city Lothal ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)
2. Mohenjo Daro is situated in—
(A) Sindh Province of Pakistan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab
(D) Afghanistan
Ans : (A)
3. Which deity was not worshipped by the Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Indra
(B) Marut
(C) Varun
(D) Pashupati
Ans : (D)
4. The Vedanga consists of the—
(A) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(B) Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish
(C) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish
(D) Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda
Ans : (A)
5. The earliest available work of the Sangam Tamils is—
(A) Pattinappalai
(B) Tirumurugarruppadai
(C) Maduraikanchi
(D) Tolkappiyam
Ans : (D)
6. The Mahavir belonged to the clan—
(A) Kalams
(B) Bhaggas
(C) Lichhivis
(D) Bulis
Ans : (C)
7. The Jain text which contains the biographies of the Tirthankaras is known as—
(A) Bhagwatisutra
(B) Uvasagadasao
(C) Adi Purana
(D) Kalpasutra
Ans : (D)
8. The first Buddhist Sangeeti (conference) was held at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Ujjain
Ans : (C)
9. The propounder of the Madhyamika Philosophy was—
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Parshwanath
(C) Sheelbhadra
(D) Nagarjuna
Ans : (D)
10. The rules of Buddhist monistic life are laid down, primarily, in—
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Vinayapitaka
(C) Abhidhammapitaka
(D) Suttapitaka
Ans : (B)
11. The battle between Alexander and Porus took place on the bank of river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Ravi
(C) Jhelum
(D) Ganga
Ans : (C)
12. The first Persian ruler who occupied part of Indian Territory was—
(A) Cyrus
(B) Darius I
(C) Cambyses
(D) Xerxes
Ans : (B)
13. Alexander remained in India for—
(A) 29 months
(B) 39 months
(C) 19 months
(D) 10 months
Ans : (C)
14. Gedrosia corresponds to modern—
(A) Baluchistan
(B) Lahore
(C) Multan
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (A)
15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) Formal accession of Asoka was very probably delayed
(B) The fifth rock edict proves the existence of Harems of Asoka’s brothers
(C) Asoka held the viceroyalty of Taxila and Ujjain in the reign of Bindusara
(D) Asoka was the younger brother of Bindusara
Ans : (D)
16. The nirvasita (excluded) and anirvasita (not excluded) Shudras have been referred to—
(A) in the Nirukta of Yaska
(B) in the Ashtadhyayi of Panini
(C) in the Arthashastra of Kautilya
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)
17. The first translator of Mahabharata into Tamil was—
(A) Perundevanar
(B) Kamban
(C) Sundaramurthi
(D) Bharavi
Ans : (A)
18 Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to the grant of concession in land revenue to a village ?
(A) Lumbini Pillar edict
(B) Sarnath Pillar edict
(C) Girnar Rock edict
(D) Sanchi Pillar edict
Ans : (A)
19. Who of the following was not a patron of Jainism ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Kharvela
(C) Kanishka
(D) Chandragupta Maurya
Ans : (A)
20. Who was the ambassador in the Court of Bindusara ?
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Deimachus
(D) Antiochus I
Ans : (C)
21. To propagate his Dhamma, Asoka used the services of—
(A) Rajukas
(B) Pradeshikas
(C) Yuktas
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
22. The last king of Mauryan empire was—
(A) Devavarman
(B) Brihadrath
(C) Kunala
(D) Shalishuk
Ans : (B)
23. The historian Kalhan was—
(A) Buddhist
(B) Brahmin
(C) Jain
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
24 Founder of the Satvahana dynasty was—
(A) Shatkarni I
(B) Simuka
(C) Shatkarni II
(D) Rudradaman I
Ans : (B)
25. Yen-Kao-Chen is generally known as—
(A) Kadphises I
(B) Kadphises II
(C) Kanishka
(D) Vasishka
Ans : (B)
26. The writer of the ‘Kalpasutra’ was—
(A) Simuka
(B) Panini
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (C)
27. The writer of the ‘Brihatkatha’ was—
(A) Dattamitra
(B) Gudadhya
(C) Bhadrabahu
(D) Sarvavarman
Ans : (B)
28. According to tradition Kashyapa Matanga introduced Buddhism to—
(A) China
(B) Kashmir
(C) Ceylon
(D) Gandhar
Ans : (A)
29. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of era in India ?
(A) Gupta—Harsha—Vikram—Shaka
(B) Vikram—Harsha—Gupta—Shaka
(C) Gupta—Shaka—Vikram—Harsha
(D) Vikram—Shaka—Gupta—Harsha
Ans : (D)
30. During Pre-Gupta period what was Kahapan ?
(A) An office
(B) A luxury item
(C) A coin
(D) A port
Ans : (C)
31. Which port was known to the author of “Periplus of the Erithrian Sea” as Padouke ?
(A) Tamralipti
(B) Arikmedu
(C) Broach
(D) Cochin
Ans : (B)
32 Chandragupta-II married his daughter Prabhavati to—
(A) Rudrasena-I
(B) Rudrasena-II
(C) Agnimitra
(D) Nagsena
Ans : (B)
33. Which of the following law givers of the post-Gupta period declared that Sudras were not slaves by nature ?
(A) Medhatithi
(B) Vigynaeshwar
(C) Narad
(D) Jimutwahan
Ans : (A)
34. Who was the founder of Gahadwala dynasty who made Kannauj the main centre of his power ?
(A) Jaichandra
(B) Vijaychandra
(C) Chandradev
(D) Govind
Ans : (C)
35. Which of the following Rashtrakut kings defeated the Pratihar ruler Nagabhatta I ?
(A) Indra II
(B) Krishna III
(C) Amoghvarsha I
(D) Govind III
Ans : (D)
36. Who among the following rulers patronized Jayadev, the composer of ‘Geetgovinda’ ?
(A) Laxman Sen
(B) Kharvel
(C) Kumarpala
(D) Shashank
Ans : (A)
37. Who out of the following ousted Jainism from Mysore ?
(A) Naynars
(B) Lingayats
(C) Alwars
(D) Shankaracharya
Ans : (D)
38. Which was the word used for the royal military troops of the Cholas ?
(A) Kattupaddi
(B) Kaikkolar
(C) Bhrtaka
(D) Kadgham
Ans : (B)
39. The Chola rulers undertook extensive land survey to ascertain—
(A) Right of ownership
(B) Government’s share of revenue
(C) Production of grains
(D) Limit of the sources of irrigation
Ans : (B)
40. Which of the following taxes of Chola period was for educational purpose ?
(A) Devadana
(B) Salabhoga
(C) Brahmadeva
(D) Sarvamanya
Ans : (A)
41. The writer of Tabqat-i-Nasiri was—
(A) Barani
(B) Nizamuddin
(C) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(D) Isami
Ans : (C)
42. The following works were written by Ziauddin Barani—
(A) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Qiranussadain
(B) Fatwa-i-Jahandari and Ashiqa
(C) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari
(D) Futuhus-salatin and Tarikhi-Firozshahi
Ans : (C)
43. Which of the following books were written by Amir Khusro ?
(A) Ashiqa, Qiranussadain, Khazain-ul-Futuh
(B) Qiranussadain, Ashiqa, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi
(C) Khazainul Futuh, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Ashiqa
(D) Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Nuh-i-Siphr, Ashiqa
Ans : (A)
44. Who wrote ‘Qanun-i-Humayuni’ ?
(A) Gulbadan Begum
(B) Yahya
(C) Khwandmir
(D) Nizamuddin
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following books was written by Ishwardas Nagar ?
(A) Futuhat-i-Alamgiri
(B) Bir Binod
(C) Chhatra Prakash
(D) Ahkam-i-Alamgiri
Ans : (A)
46. With whom of the following Muhammad Ghori aligned against Khusrau Shah ?
(A) King of Gujarat
(B) King of Multan
(C) King of Peshawar
(D) King of Jammu
Ans : (D)
47. At the time of Muhammad Ghori’s invasion against Prithviraj Chauhan who of the following ruled Kannauj ?
(A) The Chandellas
(B) The Pratihars
(C) The Palas
(D) The Gahadwalas
Ans : (D)
48. Who of the following contested with Qutubuddin Aibak for Punjab ?
(A) Ikhtiyaruddin
(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz
(C) Nasiruddin Qubacha
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
49. Who were the Nav Musalmans of the following ?
(A) Descendants of Mongols who settled near Delhi and embraced Islam
(B) Hindu converts to Islam
(C) Khalji Sultans
(D) Ilbari Sultans
Ans : (A)
50. Who was appointed as ambassador to China during the time of Mohammad bin Tughlaq ?
(A) Barbosa
(B) Barani
(C) Ibn Batutah
(D) Abdur Razzak
Ans : (C)

UPSC CDS EXAM SOLVED PAPER (EXAM HELD ON: 13-02-2011)

1. A devastating cloud burst swept over on August 2010. Which one of the following statements with regard to Cloud Burst is not correct?

1. Cloud Burst is a localized weather phenomenon representing highly concentrated rainfall over a small area in a short duration of time
2. Cloud Burst occurs due to upward movement of moisture-laden air with sufficient rapidity to form cumulonimbus clouds
3. Cloud Burst occurs only in hilly areas
4. There is no satisfactory technique till now for predicting Cloud Burst

2. Evergreening of patents is done by

1. citing another use of the same product
2. citing another process of forming the same product
3. applying for extension of patent term
4. citing another product with same use

3. Which one among the following substances evolves heat when dissolved in water?

1. Potassium nitrate
2. Sodium chloride
3. Glucose
4. Calcium oxide 

4. Why is Switzerland unable to join European Union (EU) till date (2010) despite its government’s persistent effort to do so?

1. Few EU countries like France and Germany are opposed to Switzerland’s joining the Union
2. The Swiss people continue to vote against joining the EU as they do not want to lose Switzerland’s sovereignity
3. EU rejected Switzerland’s application as Swiss government did not agree to use Euro as currency
4. All of the above

5. Eco-Mark is given to an Indian Product which is

1. rich in protein
2. environment friendly
3. economically viable
4. pure and unadulterated

6. When we eat something we like, our mouth waters. This is actually not water but fluid secreted from

1. nasal glands
2. oval epithelium
3. salivary glands
4. tongue

7. Along with goods manufactured using child labour, some of the developed countries have started to boycott goods manufactured in developing countries using ‘sweat labour’. ‘Sweat Labour’ implies goods produced by

1. female labourers at a very low wage
2. labourers working in inhuman/unhealthy working conditions
3. labourers working for more than eight hours a day without any break
4. labourers where there is a wage discrimination between male and female labourers

8. Which one among the following groups of items contains only biodegradable items?

1. Wood, Grass, Plastic
2. Wood, Grass, Leather
3. Fruit peels, Lime juice, China clay cup
4. Lime juice, Grass, Polystyrene

9. Which one among the following is not true for Special Economic Zones?

1. No licence is required for import
2. Manufacturing and service activities are allowed
3. No permission for subcontracting
4. No routine examination of cargo for export/import by customs authorities

10. Sukhoi-30MKI Squadron is not stationed at

1. Tezpur
2. Pune
3. Jamnagar
4. Bareilly

11. Dog bite can cause rabies. Which among the following other animals can also cause rabies?

1. Donkey
2. Bat
3. Horse
4. Crocodile

2. The interest of the Vijayanagar and Bahmani rulers clashed in three separate and distinct areas in Deccan. Which one among the following was not directly associated with this intense conflict?

1. Tungabhadra doab
2. Krishna-Godavari delta/basin
3. Kaveri interior delta
4. Marathawada country

13. Wind is often found to blow in a hot summer day due to

1. Conduction of heat between air and soil on the Earth
2. Radiation from the soil
3. Convection current of air
4. None of the above

14. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India extends to

1. Treaties and agreements signed by the Government of India
2. Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States
3. Disputes relating to implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy
4. A bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of the Constitution

15. Which one among the following was not a reform measure carried out by Mahmud Gawan of Bahmani Kingdom

1. The kingdom was divided into eight provinces or Tarafs
2. Nobles were paid salaries and were asked to maintain contingents of horses
3. A tract of land, Khalisa, was set apart for the expenses of the Tarafdar
4. Lands were measured and land taxes were fixed on that basis

16. Heavy water implies

1. Water which is used in heavy industries such as thermal power plants
2. Water which contains SO2-4 and Cl- of calcium and magnesium
3. deutrated water
4. water which has maximum density

17. According to Goldman Sachs’ review of emerging economies, by 2050 which one of the following would be the order of the largest economies in the world?

1. China-USA-India-Brazil-Mexico
2. USA-China-India-Brazil-Mexico
3. China-USA-Brazil-India-Mexico
4. USA-Mexico-China-India-Brazil

18. Most of the communication satellites today are placed in a geostationary orbit. In order to stay over the same spot on the Earth, a geostationary satellite has to be directly above the

1. Tropic of Cancer
2. Either North or South Pole
3. Equator
4. Tropic of Capricon

19. SIMBEX is an annual joint maritime bilateral exercise conducted between

1. China and India
2. Singapore and Indonesia
3. India and Singapore
4. Malaysia and Thailand

20. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

1. Conduct of the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
2. To check if the election certificates of the members of the House are in order
3. Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected
4. Give his assent to the bills passed by the House

21. The term ‘demographic gap’ signifies the difference

1. in sex ratio
2. in age
3. in child/woman ratio
4. between the birth and the death rate

22. Dead organs are generally stored in formalin. Formalin is

1. aqueous ferrous sulphate
2. aqueous formaldehyde
3. aqueous formic acid
4. aqueous ferric alum

23. Which one among the following is not true regarding the draft National Food Security Bill?

1. Every BPL family in the country shall be entitled to 25 kg of wheat or rice per month @ Rs. 3 per kg
2. The distribution will be on universal entitlement by ensuring coverage of every adult under the public distribution scheme
3. The Central Government shall allocate required quantity of wheat and/or rice from the central pool to State Governments, which will be distributed through fair shops
4. The draft Bill has been cleared by the empowered group of Ministers for discussion in the Cabinet

24. When items of jewellery made of metals such as copper or nickel are placed in a solution having a salt of gold, a thin film of gold is deposited by

1. cooling to below 0^o C
2. heating above 100^o C
3. passing an electric current
4. just keeping it for 10 minutes

25. Due to contraction of eyeball, a long-sighted eye can see only

1. farther objects which is corrected by using convex lens
2. farther objects which is corrected by using concave lens
3. nearer objects which is corrected by using convex lens
4. nearer objects which is corrected by using concave lens

26. Rainwater collected after 30 to 40 minutes of raining is not suitable for drinking because it

1. contains bacteria and dirt
2. contains dissolved toxic chemicals
3. is deficient in minerals
4. is acidic

27.Which one among the following statements about Ashokan Edicts is correct?

1. the Pillar Edicts were located in all parts of the empire
2. the Edicts give details of his personal concerns but are silent on events of the empire
3. the subject of inscribed matter on Rock Edicts differs completely with that of the Pillar Edicts
4. the Greek or Aramaic Edicts are versions or translations of the texts used in other Edicts

28. Mr. X was advised by an architect to make outer walls of his house with hollow bricks. The correct reason is that such walls

1. make the building stronger
2. help keeping inside cooler in summer and warmer in winter
3. prevent seepage of moisture from outside
4. protect the building from lightning

29. Which one among the following is not true of the Planning Commission?

1. It is an advisory body and makes recommendations to the Cabinet
2. It is responsible for the execution of development programmes and plans
3. It is responsible for formulation of a plan for the most effective and balanced utilization of the country’s resources
4. It indicates the factors which tend to retard economic development

30. White blood cells act

1. as a defence against infection
2. as source of energy
3. for clotting blood
4. as a medium for oxygen transport from lung to tissues

31. Why do Fold Mountains have enormous thickness of sedimentary rocks?

1. Due to deposition of sediments in a valley for millions of years
2. Due to accumulation of sediments in a geosyncline
3. The plains were folded into mountains
4. The sediments were folded into recumbent and nappe folds

32. Water is a good coolant and is used to cool the engines of cars, buses, trucks, etc. It is because water has a

1. high specific heat
2. low surface tension
3. high boiling point
4. low expansivity

33. The Vindhyan system of rocks is important for the production of

1. precious stones and building materials
2. iron ore and manganese
3. bauxite and mica
4. copper and uranium

34. A close bottle containing water at room temperature was taken to the Moon and then the lid is opened. The water will

1. freeze
2. boil
3. decompose into oxygen and hydrogen
4. not change at all

35. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct?

1. This right covers both child and adult literacy and therefore universally guarantees education to all citizens of India.
2. This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015.
3. This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world
4. The right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86the Constitutional Amendment Act

36. Which one among the following is not correct about Down’s syndrome?

1. It is a genetic disorder
2. Effected individual has early ageing
3. Effected person has mental retardation
4. Effected person has furrowed tongue with open mouth

37. The rainfall distribution pattern over the Ganga basin decreases from the

1. west to east and north to south
2. east to west and north to south
3. west to east and south to north
4. east to west and south to north

38. Which one among the following elements/ions is essential in small quantities for development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher quantities?

1. Iron
2. Chloride
3. Fluoride
4. Potassium

39. The Civil Liability of Nuclear Damage Bill, passed in the Lok Sabha in August 2010, does not make provision for

1. establishment of claims commission and appointment of claims commissioner
2. a liability cap of Rs. 1,500 crore on an operator in case of an accident
3. a liability cap of Rs. 1,500 crore also on the Government of India in case of an accident
4. liability of the operator even if an accident is unintentional

40. The Earth revolves around the Sun in an elliptical path and the Sun is located at one focus of the eclipse. Imagine a situation in which the Earth goes around the Sun on a circular path. Which one among the following would result in under that situation?

1. It would not make any difference
2. Difference between seasons will be reduced
3. The Earth would become very hot
4. The Earth would become very cold

41. Asia has large areas of inland drainage. Why is it so?

1. Rainfall is seasonal and scanty
2. There are a number of intermontane plateaus
3. River channels are obstructed by lava flows
4. It is a very large continent

42. In the interior of the Earth

1. the temperature falls with increasing depth
2. the pressure falls with increasing depth
3. the temperature rises with increasing depth
4. both temperature and pressure fall with increasing depth

43. Currently half of the world’s population live in just six countries. Identify them from the following

1. India, China, Pakistan, Brazil, Bangladesh, Indonesia
2. India, China, Bangladesh, South Africa, Pakistan, Indonesia
3. China, India, United States, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan
4. China, India, Bangladesh, United States, Pakistan, Indonesia

44. Half portion of a rectangular piece of ice is wrapped with a white piece of cloth while the other half with a black one. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?

1. Ice melts more easily under black wrap
2. Ice melts more easily under white wrap
3. No ice melts at all under the black wrap
4. No ice melts at all under the white wrap

45. Insects that can transmit diseases to human are referred to as

1. carriers
2. reservoirs
3. vectors
4. incubators

46. The angular speed of a whirlwind in a tornado towards the centre

1. decreases rapidly
2. increases
3. remains constant
4. slowly becomes zero

47. There is a distinct change in public policies promoting human development in India in the post-globalised era. This change has been termed as

1. individual-centric approach to development
2. State-centric approach to development
3. right-based approach to development
4. performance-based approach to development

48. We observe twinkling of stars due to

1. frequent and periodic fluctuation of temperature of the surface
2. constant change of refractive index of the medium between the stars and the Earth because of temperature variation
3. great distance of stars from the Earth
4. rise and fall of gaseous ball of fire inside the stars

49. Which one among the following statements is correct?

1. In summer season, the duration of day is more in northern hemisphere
2. In winter season, the duration of day is more in northern hemisphere
3. In summer season, the duration of day is less in northern hemisphere
4. In winter season, the duration of day is more in southern hemisphere

50. What is the similarity between Milwaukee Deep, Java Trench and Challenger Deep?

1. They all are trenches in the Pacific Ocean
2. They are the deepest points of the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans, respectively
3. They all are trenches in the Indian Ocean
4. They all are deeps of the Atlantic Ocean

51. Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act makes a paradigm shift from the previous wage employment programmes by

1. focusing on all-round development of the rural people
2. providing wage employment in rural areas a legal binding for the State Governments
3. providing a statutory guarantee of wage employment
4. augmenting food security through wage employment in rural areas

52. Contact lenses are made from

1. polyvinyl chloride
2. polystyrene
3. Lucite
4. Teflon

53. Which one among the following best explains the reason for the eastern and western boundaries of the Pacific Ocean experiencing frequent earthquakes?

1. There are deep ocean trenches along these margins
2. High mountain stretch along the continental margins adjacent to this ocean
3. The currents of the vast Pacific Ocean continue to dash against the continental margins
4. These margins coincide with the plate margins

54. The blackboard seems black because

1. reflects every colour
2. does not reflect any colour
3. absorbs black colour
4. reflects black colour

55. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of

1. its first meeting
2. issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat
3. declaration of the election results
4. taking oath of office by the elected members

56. In August 2010, a container ship had collided with another ship in the Arabian Sea near Mumbai. Which one of the following was the consequence of that?

1. The container ship was not damaged
2. The container ship sank and the entire oil of the ship spilled in the sea causing great damage to the aquatic lives
3. The container ship was tilted, some boxes fell into the sea, some moderate scale of oil spill took place and subsequently the ship was made upright
4. The container ship was just tilted and subsequently made upright

57. Which one of the following statements about the teachings of Kabir is not correct?

1. He was not against pilgrimage and idol worship
2. He believed in universal love
3. He emphasized on one God and the spread of devotionalism
4. He did not consider it necessary to abandon the normal life of a householder

58. Which one among the following metals is used for making boats because it does not corrode by seawater?

1. Tungsten
2. Nickel
3. Antimony
4. Titanium

59. In August 2010, Russian President hosted a summit of four nations to discuss about the menace of terrorism and narcotics at the Black Sea Resort Sochi. The countries attended were

1. Brazil, Russia, India and China
2. Russia, Afghanistan, India and Pakistan
3. Russia, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan and Afghanistan
4. Russia, Afghanistan, Pakistan and Tajikistan

60. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British Monarch. This is because

1. this membership does not affect the sovereign nature of the Indian Republic
2. this membership only shows that the British ruled over India
3. members of the association are sovereign and independent
4. it is a symbol of the unity among the members of the association

61. A body is charged negatively. It implies that

1. it has lost some of its protons
2. it has acquired some electrons from outside
3. it has lost some its electrons
4. none of the above

62. In dry regions, the leaf size of a tree becomes smaller. It is so to

1. reduce metabolism
2. reduce transpiration
3. maintain natural growth
4. protect plant from animals

63. Which one among the following is strong smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help in the detection of gas leakage?

1. Ethanol
2. Thioethanol
3. Methane
4. Chloroform

64. In scuba-diving, while ascending towards the water surface, there is a danger of bursting the lungs. It is because of

1. Archimedes’ principle
2. Boyle’s law
3. Gay-Lussac’s law of combining volumes
4. Graham’s law of diffusion

65. Which one among the following was part of Gandhi-Irwin Agreement of 1931?

1. Stern action against policemen guilty of brutal assault on Satyagrahis
2. Nehru to represent Congress at the Round Table Conference of 1931
3. Deletion of communal question from the agenda of the Conference
4. Release of political prisoners excepting those guilty of arson and violence

66. Which one of the following is the name of the Airborne Early Warning and Control System (AEWACS) inducted in the Indian Air Force in 2009?

1. Phoenix
2. Eagle
3. Kite
4. Phalcon

67. Which one among the following industries produces the most non-biodgradable wastes?

1. Thermal power plants
2. Food processing units
3. Textile mills
4. Paper mills

68. Why South-East Asia has the largest concentration of peasant population at the global scale?

1. The area is dominated by shifting cultivation due to favourable terrain character
2. Intensive subsistence farming is practiced in the region
3. The region has favourable and healthier climate
4. The area has a large forested area which is cleared for cultivation of various crops

69. Brent index is associated with

1. crude oil prices
2. copper future prices
3. gold future prices
4. shipping rate index

70. Which one of the following is an indigenously built light combat aircraft of India?

1. Akash
2. Vikrant
3. Tejas
4. Arjun

71. The President of India is elected by a proportional representation system through single transferable vote. This implies that

1. each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes
2. MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of votes
3. all MPs and MLAs have vote each
4. MPs and MLAs of different States have different numbers of votes

72. Which one among the following statements regarding the social and religious reform ideas of Raja Rammohan Roy is not correct?

1. His efforts led to the formation of Brahmo Samaj in 1828
2. He considered different religions as embodiments of universal theism
3. His Vedantic monism was strengthened after 1815 since an exposure to Christian Unitarianism
4. He paid attention exclusively to the problems/issues of the emerging middle class of India

73. Consider the following statements and identfy the author of the statement using the code given below:
"I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country, in whose making they have an effective voice, an India in which there shall be no high class and low class of people, an India in which all communities shall live in perfect harmony."

1. Baba Saheb Ambedkar
2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. Gurudev Tagore
4. Pt. Nehru

74. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Phase of industrial Revolution)	List – II (Feature)
A. First phase	1. Rise of steel, chemical, electricity industries
B. Third phase	2. Rise of cotton mill
C. Second phase	3. Rise of steam engine
D. Fourth phase	4. Rise of petrochemicals, jet aircraft, computers

Code:

1. A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 4
2. A - 2; B - 1; C - 3; D - 4
3. A - 4; B - 1; C - 3; D - 2
4. A - 4; B - 3; C - 1; D - 2

75. Global positioning system (GPS) is associated with

1. Determining latitude and longitude
2. Constellation of satellites
3. US systems of GPS and Russian system of GLONASS
4. Navigation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1,2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2,3 and 4

76. The velocity- time (u-t) graph shown above illustrates

1. uniform acceleration of an object
2. uniform retardation of an object
3. non-uniform acceleration of an object
4. non-uniform retardation of an object

77. Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a federal polity?

1. Common All India Service
2. Single integrated judiciary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

78. Consider the following statements

1. The five permanent members of the Security Council are the only countries recognised as nuclear-weapon States under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty.
2. The term of non-permanent members of the Council is five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

79. Mr. X has been invited to participate in a conference to be held at Buenos Aires. He has chosen the following shortest flight route:
Mumbai to Frankfurt (non-stop) - Frankfurt to Sao Paulo (non-stop) - Sao Paulo to Buenos Aires (non-stop)
Which one of the following seas will likely to be flown over by Mr. X?

1. Tasman sea
2. Labrador sea
3. Beaufort sea
4. Black Sea

80. Which among the following statements regarding Lord Ripon’s plan for local selfgovernment in India is/are correct?

1. The district should be the maximum area served by one Committee or Local Board
2. The Local Boards should consist of a large majority of nominated official members and be presided over by an official member as Chairman.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

81. Consider the following statements regarding India’s advocacy for a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council:

1. India is the largest democracy in the world
2. India is among the top five largest growing economics in the world
3. India has been the largest contributor to the United Nations Peacekeeping Forces.
4. India is one of the top ten contributors of the United Nations Budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 only
4. 1,3 and 4 only

82. Which of the following best explain why the lower course of a river is sometimes choked with sediments?

1. The valley of a river is widest in its lower course.
2. The velocity of a river in its lower course is low
3. The delta sometimes develops in a river’s lower course.
4. Much of the river water is drawn for irrigation in the lower course

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 2 and 4 only

83. Which of the following statements about Fourth Anglo-Mysore War are correct?

1. The Madras Council suggested a policy of rigorous and intense attack on Mysore
2. Lord Wellesley tried to revive the Triple Alliance.
3. Tipu sent emissaries to Arabia, Versailles, Mauritius and Kabul enlisting support against the English
4. The war was of a very short duration though decisive.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1 and 3 only

84. Polar bears are carnivores and prey on many arctic birds and fish. However, under natural conditions, no one found polar bears predating any penguin. This is because

1. penguins have chemical substances in their muscles which is toxic to polar bears
2. penguins are gregarious and always move in groups. Therefore, a polar bear cannot approach them
3. polar bears and penguins never coexist under natural conditions. The former lives in North Pole while the latter lives in the South Pole
4. polar bears and penguins display symbiotic relationship and they help each other for their existence in the ice-cold ecosystem

85. Which of the following statements regarding the American Revolution is/are correct?

1. The American Revolution was a conflict between British settlers and native Americans
2. The Americans refused to pay taxes imposed by the British Parliament in which the Americans had no representation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

86. Consider the following statements

1. India has a published nuclear doctrine
2. The doctrine advocates ‘no first-use’ policy
3. The authority to release nuclear weapons for use resides in the person of the President of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

As per the doctrine, the authority to release nuclear weapons for use resides in the person of the Prime Minister of India, or the designated successor(s).

87. Which one among the following statements regarding Rabindranath Tagore’s concern for the natural world and environment is not correct?

1. Caring for nature on aesthetic grounds, as Tagore did, has now become one of the major environmental concerns in the developed countries of the world
2. Tagore’s short stories and novels exhibit his concern for nature
3. Tagore’s vision of education emphasized the need to generate environmental awareness among the students
4. Tagore’s concern about the environment was activated by pragmatic and utilitarian considerations

88. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. The Armed Forces Special Power Act (AFSPA) was first enforced in the hills of Assam.
2. The AFSPA is enforced in regions notified as ‘disturbed area’.
3. Under the provisions of the Act, the Chief Minister of a State can declare the whole State or part of it as ‘disturbed area’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1 and 2 only

89. Consider the following statements about black soil of India:

1. Black soil becomes sticky when it is wet
2. Black soil contains adequate nitrogen as well as phosphorus required for the growth of plants

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. both 1 and 2
4. neither 1 nor 2

90. Industrial Revolution in Europe mainly emerged due to

1. Locating the production process in the countryside
2. Declining of the guilds because of nonfarming production coming under a single roof (the factory)
3. Growing role of merchant-capitalists in the production process

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 only

91. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Kiran MK11: Aerobatic aircraft
2. MI 35 : Attack helicopter
3. Mirage 2000: Military transport aircraft

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

92. To boost India’s power-generating capacity, the Jawaharlal Nehru Solar Mission was launched in India in January 2010. Which of the following statements regarding this Mission is/are correct?

1. India is fast exhausting reserves of fossil fuel resources.
2. Solar energy is a clean source of energy
3. India lacks technology for development of other alternative sources of power generation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

93. Which among the following monoculture crops provide(s) immediate cash to the farmers?

1. Tea in Assam
2. Rubber in Africa
3. Sugarcane in Malaysia
4. Coffee in Brazil

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

94. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Natural Vegetation of India)	List – II (Annual Rainfall received)
A. Tropical evergreen forests	1. 100 – 200 cm
B. Tropical deciduous forests	2. Above 200 cm
C. Tropical dry forests	3. Less than 50 cm
D. Arid forests	4. Above 300 cm
	5. 50 – 100 cm

Code:

1. A - 1; B - 2; C - 5; D - 3
2. A - 4; B - 3; C - 1; D - 5
3. A - 2; B - 1; C - 5; D - 3
4. A - 2; B - 1; C - 3; D - 4

95. Which of the following diseases are transmitted from one person to another?

1. AIDS
2. Cirrhosis
3. Hepatitis B
4. Syphilis

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

96. Which of the following provisions of the Constitutions of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States to effect amendment?

1. The manner of election of the President of India
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the States
3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts
4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 2 only

97. Consider the following passage and identify the three tribal principalities referred to therein using the code given below:
In the early history of the far south in India, three tribal principalities are mentioned in Ashokan inscriptions of the third century BC and in Kharavela inscription of the first century BC.
Code:

1. Vakatakas, Cholas and Satvahanas
2. Cholas, Pandyas and Cheras
3. Ikshvakus, Vakatakas and Pandyas
4. Pallavas, Cholas and Pandyas

98. Consider the following statements with regard to the mining industry of India:

1. The spatial distribution of minerals is uneven
2. The mining industry since colonial days has been export oriented

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

99. Consider the following statements and identify with the help of the code given below the person who made the statement:
It would be quite impossible for a few hundred British to administer against the active opposition of the whole of the politically minded of the population.
Code:

1. Jawaharlal Nehru in April 1947 in an address to Congressmen at Lucknow
2. Clement Attlee in January 1947 in a private letter addressed to Ernest bevin
3. Lord Mountbatten is December 1946 in a note given to British Parliament
4. Viceroy Wavell in January 1946 in a letter to Secretary of State

100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Events)	List – II (Place/Person)
A. Tarmashirin Khan’s invasion of India	1. Vijayanagar
B. Visit of Farnao Martinz Evangelho, the Portuguese factor	2. Zainul Abidin
C. Visit of the traveler Nuniz	3. Champaner
D. Network of canals in Kashmir valley	4. Muhammad Tughlaq

Code:

1. A - 2; B - 1; C - 3; D - 4
2. A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 4
3. A - 4; B - 3; C - 1; D - 2
4. A - 4; B - 1; C - 3; D - 2